GENERAL AWARENESS MCQs

1. The rate at which RBI purchases or rediscounts bills of exchange of commercial banks is called?
[A]Repo Rate
[B]Reverse Repo Rate
[C]Bank Rate
[D]Base Rate
Answer: D
2. In the capital market , simultaneous purchase and sale of securities to reduce the loss on purchase is known as …..?
[A]Arbitrage
[B]Hedging
[C]Trend following
[D]Shorting
Answer: A
3. Where do the Commercial Banks keep the liquid assets under the Statutory Liquidity Ratio?
[A]With RBI
[B]With other banks
[C]In the Market
[D]With Themselves
Answer: B
4. The terms such as ‘placement, layering, integration of funds’ are related to which among the following?
[A]Fiscal Management
[B]Financial Stability
[C]Money Laundering
[D]Capital Market Trading
Answer: C
5. Net Interest income is
[A]Interest earned on advances
[B]Interest earned on investments
[C]Total interest earned on advances and investment
[D]Difference between interest earned and interest paid
Answer: D
6. “Interest rate risk” can be placed in which among the following categories?
[A]Credit Risk
[B]Market Risk
[C]Operating Risk
[D]All of above
Answer: B
7. In an inflationary trend, the pricing of the bank products are:
[A]At increasing trend
[B]At decreasing trend
[C]No relevance of Inflation
[D]Constant
Answer: A
8. Consider the following statements:
1. Foreign Exchange markets are dynamic and round the clock markets.
2. Some Foreign Exchange markets operate within a country’s time zone.
3. Foreign Exchange markets are used only for trade
Which among the above is/ are correct statements ?
[A]Only 1
[B]1 & 2
[C]2 & 3
[D]1, 2 & 3
Answer: A
9. In which year Bombay Stock Exchange was established?
[A]1865
[B]1875
[C]1880
[D]1890
Answer: B
10. In which year NSE was established?
[A]1978
[B]1985
[C]1994
[D]1998
Answer: C
11. Who among the following own the EXIM Bank?
[A]Government of India
[B]Government of India + Reserve Bank of India
[C]Government of India + Reserve Bank of India +Some commercial Banks
[D]Government of India + Reserve Bank of India +Some commercial Banks +Financial Institutions
Answer: A
12. An Inchoate Instrument as per the NI Act is a document which is ____?
[A]Fraudulent
[B]Incorrect
[C]Incomplete
[D]Handwritten
Answer: C
13. Consider the following statements:
1. ICICI Bank was the first Bank to offer Internet banking in India
2. ICRA is a credit rating agency promoted by the Industrial Finance Corporation of India
3. Component of Gold and Gold Bullion in the assets of Issue Department of RBI are to be not less than Rs. 115 Crores.
Which among the above statements is/ are correct?
[A]Only 1
[B]1 & 2
[C]2 & 3
[D]1, 2 & 3
Answer: D
14. Which among the following is the highest credit risk rating that can be awarded to any company by CRISIL?
[A]AAA
[B]AAA+
[C]AA+
[D]A++
Answer: A
15. Consider the following:
Assertion: Bankers, in general, are hesitant to finance HUF (Hindu Undivided Family)
Reason: The liability of the firm to the banker is susceptible to change with the birth of male child or with the death of a male coparcener in the HUF
Choose the correct option:
[A]Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is correct explanation of
Assertion
[B]Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is NOT correct explanation of
Assertion
[C]Assertion is correct, Reason is incorrect
[D]Assertion is incorrect, Reason is correct
Answer:A
16. Consider the following:
1. High food, commodity and energy prices
2. Sovereign debt problems
3. High level of government debt
The Economy of India is facing which among the above problems now a days?
[A]Only 1
[B]1 & 2
[C]2 & 3
[D]1, 2 & 3 
Answer: A
17. As per reports published in several business newspapers, which among the following is the largest regional emerging market in the world?
[A]ASEAN–China Free Trade Area
[B]ASEAN–India Free Trade Area
[C]Mercosur
[D]Asia-Pacific Trade Agreement 
Answer: A
18. Which among the following is the main industry of MENA region of the World?
[A]Manufacturing
[B]Petroleum
[C]Mines and Minerals
[D]Tourism & Hospitality 
Answer: B
19. If the government chooses to spend money freshly printed by the RBI against government securities, it should be kept in which among the following?
[A]Fiscal adjustment
[B]Deficit Financing
[C]Mandatory spending
[D]Retrenchment 
Answer: B 
20. Consider the following:
1. Reverse Repo Rate
2. Cash Reserve Ratio
3. Statutory Liquidity Ratio
4. Bank Rate
An increase in which among the above could raise the interest rates in the market?
[A]1
[B]1 & 2
[C]1, 2 & 3
[D]1, 2, 3 & 4 
Answer: D
21. In which year, the World Bank revised the common international poverty line to $1.25 at the 2005 purchasing power parity?
[A]2006
[B]2007
[C]2008
[D]2009 
Answer: C
22. As per the recent Government norms, an Infrastructure debt fund can be established as ____:
1. A trust
2. A company
3. A mutual Fund
Which among the above is/ are correct?
[A]Only 1
[B]1 & 2
[C]2 & 3
[D]1, 2 & 3 
Answer: B
23. Which among the following is the India’s research Base in Arctic?
[A]Gangotri
[B]Maitri
[C]Himadri
[D]Bhagirathi 
Answer: C
24. Which among the following Pakistani bowler is known to have devised the “Doosra” or second, a style bowled by an off-spinner?
[A]Rashid Latif
[B]Saqlain Mushtaq
[C]Shoaib Akhtar
[D]Waqar Yunuis 
Answer: B
25. Chaukhtatgyi Buddha, which is the largest reclining Buddha in the world, is located in which among the following countries?
[A]Thailand
[B]Myanmar
[C]Cambodia
[D]Afghanistan 
Answer: B
26. A village in the plain area of India comes under the Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojna , if its population is more than ___?
[A]500
[B]1000
[C]1500
[D]2000 
Answer: A
27. As per the recent data, which among the following is the top state in terms of number of domestic tourist visits ?
[A]Andhra Pradesh
[B]Uttar Pradesh
[C]Goa
[D]Rajasthan 
Answer: A
28. Which among the following is the Top state in India in terms of Foreign Tourist Visits?
[A]Rajasthan
[B]Goa
[C]Maharastra
[D]Delhi 
Answer: C
29. With which among the following countries, India has recently signed bilateral Aviation Safety Agreement (BASA)?
[A]Australia
[B]Canada
[C]US
[D]UK
 Answer: C
30. As per the recent estimates, India’s overall foodgrain production is expected to be 241.56 million tonnes, which is highest ever. Which among the following shares the maximum quantity in this ?
[A]Rice
[B]Wheat
[C]Coarse cereals
[D]Maize
Answer: A

BANK EXAMS GENERAL AWARENESS MCQs

1. Which of the following will decrease inflation?
a) Truckers strike
b) Rise in the price of manufactured goods
c) Cut in fuel prices
d) All of the above

2. Which of the following clauses of SEBI is associated with corporate government?
a) 41
b) 42
c) 49
d) 52

3. SEBI was established in
a) 1993
b) 1992
c) 1988
d) 1990
e) 1994

4. The working of SEBI includes
a) To regulate the dealings of share market
b) To check the foul dealings in share market
c) To control the insider trading of shares
d) All of these

5. LLP stands for
a) Limited Liability Partnership
b) Limited Loyalty Partnership
c) Liable Limited Partnership
d) Lower Level Partnership

6. NABARD is a
a) Commercial bank
b) development bank
c) cooperative bank
d) Regional rural bank

7. The main security guard of international trade is
a) IMF
b) WTO
c) World Bank
d)Asian Development Bank

8. The headquarters of the World Bank is situated at
a) Washington DC
b) Geneva
c) New York
d) Paris

9. ‘Open market operation’ is a part of
a) Income Policy
b) Fiscal Policy
c) Credit Policy
d) Labour Policy

10. In which year did India’s economic liberalization start?
a) 1984
b) 1991
c) 1999
d) 2004
e) None of these

11. Which of the following is not a feature of open economy?
a) Non-interference by govt
b) Competition
c) Demand and Supply
d) Consumers’ benefit
e) Administered price

12. Which of the following is the most advocating agency for economic globalization?
a) WTO b) World Bank
c) IMF d) EU
e) None of these
13. Which of the following is the core of the Basel-II norms?
a) Non-Performing Assets
b) Capital Adequacy Ratio
c) Prime Lending Rate
d) Priority Sector Lending
e) None of these

14. Match the following correctly.
List – I List – I
A) Apart from raising the cap on foreign
(i) Insurance Laws
investment to 49% from 26%, this bill (Amendment)
seeks to allow nationalized general Bill, 2008
insurance companies to raise funds from
capital markets and change norms governing
the rights of policyholders and insures-
respect to insurance policies.
(ii) Companies
B) This bill seeks a comprehensive overhaul Bill, 2008
of the company law, which has been amended
24 times since its inception in 1956. The bill
shifts the onus of regulation and oversight
over management away from the government
towards the share holders and provides for stricter
standards of approval by share holders. It also
seeks to strengthen corporate governance.
C) The Bill, introduced in 2005, sets a framework to
(iii) Pension Fund
regulate and develop pension funds, and thus Regulatory
enhance old-age income security, by allowing private and Develop-
sector to participate in the business. Many of the ment Authority
provisions of the bill have already been without Bill, 2005
statutory powers) has been established. The UPA
Government did not take it up because of opposition
from the Left parties.
(iv) Banking
D) Aims to align the voting right for foreign shareholders Regulation  in Indian private banks with their stakes. At present, (Amendment) voting right is capped at 10 per cent. The move will Bill  encourage foreign banks to raise capital either through preference shares and some other routes that are currently  not permitted.

A B C D
a) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
b) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
c) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
d) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
e) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

15. Which of the following institutions is the apex body responsible for overall development, policy, planning and financial support of agriculture and rural development?
a) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
b) National Agriculture Cooperative Marketing Federation of India
c) Indian Farmers’ Fertilisers Cooperative Organisation.

16. The term ‘Paper Gold’ refers to
a) Paper currency
b) gold of highest purity
c) Special Drawing Rights.
d) oil bonds
e) yellow shining paper.

17. Who among the following is responsible for the execution of the export and import policies of the Government of India?
a) Chairman, State Trading Corporation
b) Director-General of Trade and Commerce
c) Chief Controller of Imports and Exports
d) Finance Commission
e) Ministry of Commerce

18. Consider the following relationships.
A) Deficit budgeting-Inflation
B) Consumer Price Index-Inflation
C) Export Concessions-Fiscal Policy
D) Income-Standard of Living
E) Income Tax-Monetary Policy Which of the above relationship is not correct?
a) A and D
b) B and E
c) Only C
d) A and C
e) B and D

19. Taxes are collected by the Government with the basic objective(s) of
A) Curbing the growing of black money.
B) Establishing the coercive authority of the Government.
C) Financing Government plans and expenditure
D) Reducing inequalities in the society.
a) A and B only
b) B and C only
c) C and D only
d) A and D only
e) A, B, C and D

20. Which of the following is/are the functions of the Securities and Exchange Board of India?
A) To register and regulate collective Investment plans of mutual funds.
B) To regulate the business of stock exchange and other securities market.
C) To safeguard the interest of investors.
D) To regulate capital market with suitable measures.
a) A and C only
b) B and D only
c) A, B and C only
d) B, C and D only
e) All A, B, C and D

21. Which of the following is/are the objective of the World Trade Organisation?
A) To enlarge production and trade of services.
B) To enlarge production and trade of goods.
C) To improve standard of living of people in the member countries
D) To ensure full employment and increase in effective demand
a) A only b) A and B only
c) A, B and C only
d) B and C only
d) All A, B, C and D

22. Which of the following is/are not the function(s) of the Reserve Bank of India?
A) To regulate cash and credit system of India
B) To keep Foreign Exchange Reserve
C) To issue five rupee coins and notes
D) To formulate the monetary policy.
a) B only
b) D only
c) A and C only
d) B and D only
e) All A, B, C and D

23. Poverty is estimated by the Planning Commission on the basis of the large sample surveys on household consumer expenditure. This survey is conducted by the
a) National Statistical Organisation
b) National Sample Survey Organisation
c) National Commission on Enterprises in the Unorganised Sector
d) Centre for Monitoring Indian Economy.
e) National Family Health Survey.

24. The economic development in India is inadequate mainly due to
a) slow rate of growth in industrial production.
b) high rate of population growth
c) slow rate of growth in agricultural production
d) shortage of resources
e) shortage of manpower

25. The main objective of IMF loan to India is
a) to improve technology
b) to improve agriculture
c) to increase industrial output
d) to meet balance of payment problem
e) to reduce deficit in the Union Budget.

26. Which of the following is the main source of revenue for State governments in the Indian Union?
a) Income tax and excise duty
b) Land revenue and sales tax
c) Motor vehicle tax
d) Building tax
e) Profession tax

27. ‘Grants-in-aid’ is given to the States for
a) improving the Centre-State relationship
b) reducing regional imbalances
c) various development schemes and rehabilitation purposes.
d) welfare of SCs and STs.
e) improving the development of backward areas

28. ‘Social Security and Social Insurance’ is a subject included in the
a) Concurrent List of Powers
b) State List of Powers
c) Union List of Powers
d) Residuary Powers
e) None of these

29. Which of the following is the maximum revenue source of village panchayats?
a) Government grants
b) Sales tax
c) Voluntary help by village cooperatives
d) Local taxes on lands, fairs and festivals
e) Profit from village panchayat initiatives
.
30. The impact of the Green Revolution has been mainly felt in
a) pulses
b) cereals
c) vegetables
d) fruits
e) All of these

31. Which of the following is not correct for economically under developed countries?
a) High birth rate
b) High rate of unemployment
c) Low level of literacy
d) Low level of involvement in primary occupations
e) None of these

32. The National Development Council of India is presided over by the
a) Finance
b) Home Minister
c) Vice-Chairman, Planning Commission
d) Prime Minister of India.

33. Economic and Social Planning is included in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution as part of
a) the Union List
b) the State List
c) the Concurrent List
d) None of these

34. Life expectancy of the female population in India is
a) lower than its male counterpart.
b) higher than its male counterpart
c) equal to its male counterpart
d) declining in recent years

35. The level of a municipality in terms of nagar panchayat, municipal board/council and municipal corporation is normally determined on the basis of
a) the size of population
b) the population density
c) the geographical area
d) the size of work force
e) None


36. The literacy rate in India, according to the 2001 census was
a) 58 per cent
b) 55 per cent
c) 54.5 per cent
d) 74.04 per cent

37. The headquarters of the Asian Development Bank is located at—
(A) Bangkok
(B) Singapore
(C) Kualalumpur
(D) Manila

38. Explicit cost means—
(A) Payments made for short period
(B) Payments made for long period
(C) Payments incurred on fixed and variable costs
(D) Payments made for productive resources

39. The most important aspect affecting cropping pattern is—
(A) The social consideration
(B) The economic consideration
(C) The political consideration
(D) The geographical consideration

40. Which is the most mobile factor of production ?
(A) Land
(B) Labour
(C) Capital
(D) Organisation

41. Cottage and small scale industries are desirable in Indian Economy from the point of view of—
(A) Income generation
(B) Large scale production
(C) Low cost technology
(D) Employment generation

42. Which one of the following item is entered as credit in the balance of Payment Account ?
(A) Imports from abroad
(B) Purchase of assets from abroad
(C) Sale of assets abroad
(D) Purchase of gold from abroad

43. When there are economies of scale, it means that an increase in production must be accompanied by—
(A) A reduction in total cost of production
(B) A reduction in average cost of production
(C) A reduction in prices of inputs
(D) An increase in profitability of producers

44. Changes in Bank Rate affects—
(A) The market rate of interest
(B) Select industries for investments
(C) Banks giving loans
(D) The cash reserve ratios

45. Total costs is a combination of—
(A) Fixed cost and variable cost
(B) Money cost and real cost
(C) Economic cost and social cost
(D) Past cost and future cost

46. Very often we see in the advertisements published by Financing Institutes/Agencies stating that their products are given high or average Ratings. These Rating Agencies classify bonds/investments in how many categories ?
1. Low Risk
2. Average Risk
3. High Risk
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these


47. As per the reports published in various newspapers/journals etc. the economic map of the world is being redesigned. What is/are the new emerging trends of this new economic map of the world ?
1. With India and Asia at the forefront the centre of economic gravity has shifted to East.
2. Emerging markets, with India among the leaders, are growing faster than old established markets.
3. Central banks of the countries have recognized that case-by-case liquidity solutions are not the answers and a market wide and globally synchronized approach is needed to solve the present crisis.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these

48. Under the Indira Gandhi National Widow Scheme for women abvoe 80 years the monthly pension to be paid is Rs....... per month with effect from 1st April 2011.
a) Rs.300
b) Rs.400
c)Rs.500
d) Rs.200
e) none of these.


49. Many a times we read a term in financial news papers ‘SEPA’. What is the full form of the term ?
(A) Single Exchange Processing Agency
(B) Single Euro Payments Area
(C) Single Electronic Processing Agency
(D) Super Electronic Purchase Agency
(E) None of these


50. As per the revised norms of with effect from 1st April 2011 ‘Indira Gandhi National Widow Pension Scheme’ a monthly pension will be given to the widows above the age of....
(A) 60
(B) 65
(C) 55
(D) 70
(E) None of these

ANSWERS:

1.C 2.B 3.C 4.D 5.A 6.B 7.B 8.A 9.C 10.B

11.E 12.A 13.B 14.A 15.A 16.C 17.C 18.C 19.C 20.E

21.E 22.B 23.B 24.D 25.D 26.B 27.C 28.A 29.D 30.B

31.D 32.D 33.C 34.B 35.A 36.D 37.D 38.D 39.D 40.C

41.D 42.C 43.B 44.A 45.A 46.D 47.A 48.C 49.B 50.A

Uttar Pradesh PSC Solved Question Paper 2011

General Studies

1. The earliest evidence of agriculture in Indian sub-continent is found at—
(A) Lothal
(B) Harappa
(C) Mehrgarh
(D) Mundigak
Ans : (C)
2. During the Rig Vedic period Niska was an ornament of—
(A) Ear
(B) Neck
(C) Arm
(D) Wrist
Ans : (B)
3. Which of the following were regarded as the hub of Aryan culture during the later Vedic period ?
(A) Anga, Magadh
(B) Kosal, Videha
(C) Kuru, Panchal
(D) Matsya, Surasena
Ans : (C)
4. Who among the following was the first to take initiative for water resource management in the Girnar region ?
(A) Chandragupta Maurya
(B) Asoka
(C) Rudradaman
(D) Skandagupta
Ans : (A)
5. That Lumbini was the birth place of Gautama Buddha, is confirmed by an inscription of—
(A) Asoka
(B) Kanishka
(C) Harsha
(D) Dharmapala
Ans : (A)
6. Who among the following Gupta Kings had another name Devagupta ?
(A) Samudragupta
(B) Chandragupta II
(C) Kumaragupta
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)
7. Kumaradevi, a queen of Govinda Chandra Gahadavala, constructed Dharma-Chakra Jina Vihara at—
(A) Bodha Gaya
(B) Rajgrih
(C) Kushinagar
(D) Sarnath
Ans : (D)
8. Which of the following dynasties frequently assigned to the ladies high ranking positions in administration ?
(A) Chola
(B) Chalukya
(C) Pala
(D) Sena
Ans : (B)
9. Who among the following Rajput rulers is known to have written a book on music ?
(A) Jayachandra Gahadavala
(B) Prithviraj Chauhan
(C) Rana Kumbha
(D) Man Singh
Ans : (C)
10. Which Sultan of Delhi was a contemporary of the Mongol leader Chengiz Khan ?
(A) Iltutmish
(B) Razia
(C) Balban
(D) Alauddin Khalji
Ans : (A)
11. Who among the following was the continuing link between Sher Shah and Akbar in the field of land revenue administration ?
(A) Birbal
(B) Todar Mal
(C) Bhagwan Das
(D) Bhar Mal
Ans : (B)
12. With which medieval ruler would you associate the statement ‘I would have lost the empire just for a handful of millet’ ?
(A) Alauddin Khalji
(B) Muhammad Tughlaq
(C) Sher Shah
(D) Aurangzeb
Ans : (C)
13. The Maratha King became a nonentity and the Peshwa the virtual ruler from the time of—
(A) Balaji Vishwanath
(B) Baji Rao I
(C) Balaji Rao
(D) Madnav Rao I
Ans : (B)
14. Thomas Roe was received in audience by Jehangir at—
(A) Agra
(B) Ajmer
(C) Delhi
(D) Fatehpur Sikri
Ans : (A)
15. Which one of the following musical instruments was mastered by Aurangzeb ?
(A) Sitar
(B) Pakhawaj
(C) Veena
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)
16. Which son of Aurangzeb revolted against his father, weakening the latter’s position against the Rajputs ?
(A) Azam
(B) Akbar
(C) Muazzam
(D) Kam Baksh
Ans : (B)
17. Who were the first Europeans to come to India for trade ?
(A) Dutch
(B) English
(C) French
(D) Portuguese
Ans : (D)
18. What did the Act V of 1843 make illegal ?
(A) Child marriage
(B) Infanticide
(C) Sati
(D) Slavery
Ans : (D)
19. Who among the following was the leader of the revolution of 1857 in Assam ?
(A) Diwan Maniram Dutta
(B) Kandarpeshwar Singh
(C) Purandar Singh
(D) Piali Barua
Ans : (A)
20. Which of the following Acts transferred the Government of India from East India Company to the Crown ?
(A) Government of India Act 1858
(B) Indian Councils Act 1861
(C) Royal Titles Act 1876
(D) Indian Councils Act 1892
Ans : (A)
21. The first meeting of Indian National Congress was held at—
(A) Bombay
(B) Poona
(C) Madras
(D) Calcutta
Ans : (A)
22. The paper ‘Indian Mirror’ was published during 1861 from—
(A) Bombay
(B) Calcutta
(C) Madras
(D) Pondicherry
Ans : (B)
23. Name the organization formed by Surendranath Banerjee which merged with the Indian National Congress in 1886—
(A) East India Association
(B) London India Society
(C) Indian Association
(D) Indian National Conference
Ans : (C)
24. Who among the following introduced the Vernacular Press Act ?
(A) Lord Lytton
(B) Lord Ripon
(C) Lord Curzon
(D) Lord Hastings
Ans : (A)
25. The President of Surat Session of Indian National Congress, 1907 was—
(A) R. B. Ghosh
(B) B. G. Tilak
(C) Annie Besant
(D) G. K. Gokhale
Ans : (A)
26. Who among the following had started Indian Home Rule Society in London ?
(A) Annie Besant
(B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(C) Shyamji Krishna Varma
(D) Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi
Ans : (C)
27. The first Trade Union was founded in India in the year 1918 by—
(A) N. M. Joshi
(B) B. P. Wadia
(C) V. V. Giri
(D) S. A. Dange
Ans : (B)
28. Who resigned from the membership of Viceroy’s Executive Council as a protest against Jallianwala Bagh Massacre ?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Rabindranath Tagore
(C) Shankaran Nair
(D) Jamnalal Bajaj
Ans : (C)
29. Who had opposed the Champaran Satyagraha of Mahatma Gandhi ?
(A) Rabindranath Tagore
(B) N. G. Ranga
(C) Rajkumar Shukla
(D) Rajendra Prasad
Ans : (A)
30. In which one of the following languages was the first issue of the Journal Ghadar published ?
(A) Urdu
(B) Hindi
(C) English
(D) Marathi
Ans : (A)
31. Who was the author of the book ‘Bandi Jiwan’ ?
(A) Dinabandhu Mitra
(B) Hema Chandrakar
(C) Ram Prasad Bismil
(D) Sachindra Sanyal
Ans : (D)
32. Consider the following events connected with Indian National Movement :
1. Gandhi-Irvin Pact
2. Execution of Bhagat Singh
3. Karachi Session of Indian National Congress, 1931
4. Martyrdom of Chandra Shekhar Azad
Find the correct chronological order of the events from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 4, 1, 2, 3
(B) 1, 2, 3, 4
(C) 2, 3, 4, 1
(D) 4, 1, 3, 2
Ans : (A)
33. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists : List-I
(a) Annie Besant
(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(c) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(d) Ambika Charan Majumdar
List-II
1. Home Rule Movement
2. Champaran Satyagraha
3. Lucknow Session of Indian
National Congress, 1916
4. Lahore Session of Indian
National Congress, 1929
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 4 3
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 3 2 1 4
Ans : (A)
34. Who among the following said about the Act of 1935 “a car which has brake but no engine” ?
(A) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(B) C. Rajgopalachari
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) S. C. Bose
Ans : (A)
35. Who formed the Radical Democratic Party in 1940 ?
(A) Indrasen
(B) M. N. Roy
(C) Somendranath Tagore
(D) Shachindranath Sanyal
Ans : (B)
36. Who started the individual Satyagraha ?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Pattabhi Sitaramayya
(C) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(D) Vinoba Bhave
Ans : (D)
37. Who among the following called the movements of Gandhiji as ‘political blackmail’ ?
(A) Lord Chelmsford
(B) Lord Wavel
(C) Lord Linlithgow
(D) Lord Montague
Ans : (C)
38. Muslim League observed the ‘Direct Action Day’ on—
(A) 12 August 1942
(B) 16 August 1943
(C) 16 August 1946
(D) 14 August 1947
Ans : (C)
39. Arrange in chronological order the following events which occurred during post-independence period :
1. Liberation of Goa
2. Dalai Lama fled to India
3. Chou En-Lai visited India
4. India visit of Khrushchev and Bulganin
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1, 3, 2, 4
(B) 2, 1, 4, 3
(C) 3, 4, 1, 2
(D) 4, 2, 3, 1
Ans : (D)
40. Who among the following were responsible for the creation of Ratha monuments at Mamallapuram ?
(A) Cholas
(B) Pallavas
(C) Pandyas
(D) Chalukyas
Ans : (B)
41. The ancient monuments of Elephanta are mostly
1. Buddhist
2. Jain
3. Saivite
4. Vaishnavite
Select the correct answer from the code given below—
Code :
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 1 and 3
Ans : (C)
42. Which of the following temples is considered as a wonder of rock-cut architecture ?
(A) Brihadisvara Temple, Tanjavur
(B) Lingaraja Temple, Bhubaneshwar
(C) Kailash Temple, Ellora
(D) Kandaria Mahadeva Temple, Khajuraho
Ans : (C)
43. Ruins of which of the following represent the old capital of Vijayanagar ?
(A) Ahmadnagar
(B) Bijapur
(C) Golconda
(D) Hampi
Ans : (D)
44. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) Akbar’s Tomb —Sikandara
(B) Jahangir’s Tomb —Sahdara
(C) Tomb of Shaikh Salim Chishti —Fatehpur Sikri
(D) Tomb of Shaikh Nizamuddin Aulia —Ajmer
Ans : (D)
45. Which of the following was the birth place of Guru Nanak ?
(A) Amritsar
(B) Nabha
(C) Nankana
(D) Nander
Ans : (C)
46. Where did Maharaja Jaisingh II built observatories ?
1. Delhi
2. Jaipur
3. Ujjain
4. Varanasi
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (D)
47. Who among the following transformed the traditional Ganapati festival of Maharashtra into a national festival and gave it a political character ?
(A) Ramdas
(B) Shivaji
(C) Mahadev Govind Ranade
(D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Ans : (D)
48. Who among the following had founded the ‘Indian Society of Oriental Art’ to revive ancient art traditions of India ?
(A) Abanindra Nath Tagore
(B) Nand Lal Bose
(C) Asit Kumar Haldhar
(D) Amrita Shergill
Ans : (A)
49. Who among the following was offered Membership of the Royal Asiatic Society of Paris ?
(A) Dadabhai Naoroji
(B) Michael Madhusudan Dutta
(C) Raja Rammohan Roy
(D) Vivekanand
Ans : (B)
50. The first University Chair of Sanskrit was founded in—
(A) England
(B) France
(C) Germany
(D) Russia
Ans : (C)
51. Who among the following had said, ‘God intended me to look upon all religions with one eye, that is why he took away the light from the other’ ?
(A) Maharaja Ranjit Singh
(B) Maharaja Sher Singh
(C) Maharaja Dalip Singh
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)
52. Who among the following deities is represented in art as holding a plough ?
(A) Krishna
(B) Balarama
(C) Kartikeya
(D) Maitreya
Ans : (B)
53. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Jawahar Lal Nehru —Hind Swaraj
(B) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad —India Wins Freedom
(C) Subhash Chandra Bose —Indian Struggle
(D) Lala Lajpat Rai —Unhappy India
Ans : (A)
54. Which one of the following will be the year of Saka Samvat in December 2009 ?
(A) 1931
(B) 1952
(C) 2066
(D) 2087
Ans : (A)
55. The smallest million city of India is—
(A) Amritsar
(B) Allahabad
(C) Rajkot
(D) Vijayawada
Ans : (C)
56. Why is Dhanbad most densely inhabited district of Chhota Nagpur plateau ?
(A) Fertile soil and irrigational facilities by canals from the Damodar
(B) Availability of coal, iron ore, mica, copper etc.
(C) Development of mining industries and industrialization
(D) All the above
Ans : (D)
57. Which one of the following classes of towns are included in the category of small towns by the Census of India ?
(A) Class VI
(B) Class V and VI
(C) Class IV, V and VI
(D) Class III, IV, V and VI
Ans : (D)
58. In India maximum number of cities reporting slums are found in—
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans : (B)
59. The coast areas of which of the following oceans are called ‘ring of fire’ ?
(A) Atlantic Ocean
(B) Pacific Ocean
(C) Indian Ocean
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)
60. ‘Operation Green’ was launched in Uttar Pradesh on—
(A) July 1, 2001
(B) October 2, 2001
(C) July 1, 2005
(D) June 6, 2006
Ans : (C)
61. The country which has the finest system of protected lands in the world is—
(A) China
(B) Costa Rica
(C) India
(D) Switzerland
Ans : (D)
62. In India maximum alkali area is found in the State of—
(A) Gujarat
(B) Haryana
(C) Punjab
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans : (A)
63. In India Project Elephant was launched in the year—
(A) 1968
(B) 1970
(C) 1972
(D) 1974
Ans : Project Elephant was started in 1992
64. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
(A) Simlipal —Assam
(B) Nokrek —Meghalaya
(C) Dehong Debang —Sikkim
(D) Agasthyamalai —Karnataka
Ans : (B)
65. According to the 2001 Census Report, male female ratio in India is—
(A) 1000 : 930
(B) 1000 : 934
(C) 1000 : 926
(D) 1000 : 933
Ans : (D)
66. Which State of India has the largest Muslim population according to the 2001 Census ?
(A) Assam
(B) Bihar
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) West Bengal
Ans : (C)
67. Among the following States which one has the highest sex ratio, according to 2001 Census ?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Chhattisgarh
(C) Himachal Pradesh
(D) Jharkhand
Ans : (B)
68. The State which recorded the minimum population growth rate during 1991-2001 is—
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Kerala
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) West Bengal
Ans : (B)
69. In which year was the first regular Census held in India ?
(A) 1921
(B) 1881
(C) 1911
(D) 1931
Ans : (B)
70. Which of the following countries are included in the ‘Golden Crescent’ ?
1. Afghanistan
2. Iran
3. Iraq
4. Pakstan
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 4
Ans : (D)
71. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Kimberley —Diamond
(B) Witwatersrand —Gold
(C) Katomga —Copper
(D) Saar —Iron ore
Ans : (D)
72. Which one of the following countries has the highest birth rate ?
(A) Afghanistan
(B) Bangladesh
(C) India
(D) Pakistan
Ans : (D)
73. Alexandria is a port of—
(A) Egypt
(B) Israel
(C) Jordan
(D) Libya
Ans : (A)
74. Which one of the following South Asian countries has the highest population density ?
(A) Sri Lanka
(B) India
(C) Nepal
(D) Pakistan
Ans : (B)
75. Persian Gulf does not form border with—
(A) Bahrain
(B) Iraq
(C) Kuwait
(D) Oman
Ans : (D)
76. Which one of the following countries is the third largest economy of the world ?
(A) Japan
(B) Malaysia
(C) India
(D) China
Ans : (A)
77. The Equator passes through—
(A) Central African Republic
(B) Kenya
(C) Sarawak
(D) Venezuela
Ans : (B)
78. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
Minerals—Producing Areas
(A) Copper—Arizona
(B) Coal—Carajas
(C) Iron Ore—Rastanura
(D) Petroleum—Donbas
Ans : (A)
79. Which of the following are active volcanoes ?
1. Aconagua
2. Cotopaxi
3. Etna
4. Fujiyama
Select the correct answer from the code given below—
Code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2, 3 and 4
Ans : Incorrect Options
80. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Ghana—Accra
(B) Kenya—Nairobi
(C) Namibia—Windhooks
(D) Nigeria—Rabat
Ans : (D)
81. Through which of the following straits does a tunnel connect the United Kingdom and France ?
(A) Davis Strait
(B) Denmark Strait
(C) Strait of Dover
(D) Strait of Gibralter
Ans : (C)
82. In which of the following group of countries maize is used as staple food ?
(A) Western Europe
(B) Russia
(C) Middle Africa
(D) South-East Asia
Ans : (C)
83. The biggest port in India is—
(A) Vishakhapatnam
(B) Mumbai
(C) Tuticorin
(D) Kandla
Ans : (B)
84. Sankosh river forms boundary between—
(A) Bihar and West Bengal
(B) Assam and Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Assam and West Bengal
(D) Bihar and Jharkhand
Ans : (B)
85. Pir Panjal range lies in—
(A) Arunachal Pradesh
(B) Jammu and Kashmir
(C) Punjab
(D) Uttarakhand
Ans : (B)
86. Which of the following city of Uttar Pradesh is not joined by Nationla Highway 2 ?
(A) Agra
(B) Allahabad
(C) Lucknow
(D) Varanasi
Ans : (C)
87. Which of the following rivers is an example of the superimposed drainage ?
(A) Alaknanda
(B) Kosi
(C) Chambal
(D) Godawari
Ans : (C)
88. Which factors have facilitated the locational shift of the sugar industry from North India to South India ?
1. Per acre higher yield of sugar cane
2. Higher sucrose content of sugar cane
3. Longer crushing season
4. Cheap labour
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (C)
89. Which of the following crops are grown mostly under subsistence farming ?
(A) Millets and Rice
(B) Cotton and Tobacco
(C) Tea and Coffee
(D) Vegetables and Fruits
Ans : (A)
90. Teak and Sal are the products of—
(A) Tropical Dry Deciduous Forests
(B) Tropical Evergreen Forests
(C) Tropical Thorn Forests
(D) Alpine Forests
Ans : (A)
91. On which one of the following rivers is ‘Tulbul’ Project located ?
(A) Chenab
(B) Ravi
(C) Beas
(D) Jhelum
Ans : (D)
92. Which one of the following is the actual source of the Son river ?
(A) Amarkantak in Shahdol district
(B) Son Muda in Shahdol district
(C) Son Bachharwar in Bilaspur district
(D) Mandla plateau
Ans : (A)
93. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
Nuclear Plant—Year of Commissioning
(A) Kota—1989
(B) Kakrapar—1984
(C) Kaiga—1999
(D) Kalpakkam—1995
Ans : (C)
94. Rubber industry in India is located at—
(A) Panjim
(B) Bangalore
(C) Puducherri
(D) Aurangabad
Ans : (B)
95. In March 2009 the BrahMos Missile was tested at—
(A) Pokharan
(B) Chandipur
(C) Cape Canveral
(D) Sri Harikota
Ans : (A)
96. The countries, which participated in Malabar-2009 exercises, were—
(A) China, England, Russia
(B) China, India, Russia
(C) India, USA, Japan
(D) Japan, England, USA
Ans : (C)
97. Three ‘Phalcon AWACS’ supplied by Israel were received in India for the first time in—
(A) March 2009
(B) April 2009
(C) May 2009
(D) February 2009
Ans : (C)
98. The winner of Nobel Peace Prize for 2008 is—
(A) Al Gore
(B) Muhammad Yunus
(C) Martti Ahtisaari
(D) Wangari Maathai
Ans : (C)
99. Who among the following has been chosen for ‘Hoover Medal’ in March 2009 for his contribution to the upliftment of the poor and the rural people ?
(A) Sam Patroda
(B) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(C) M. S. Swaminathan
(D) Baba Amte
Ans : (B)
100. In April 2009, G-20 Summit was held in—
(A) Geneva
(B) London
(C) Paris
(D) Rome
Ans : (B)
101. India was represented in the Annual Meet of the World Economic Forum, held in Davos (Switzerland) in January 2009, by—
(A) Manmohan Singh
(B) Kamal Nath
(C) P. Chidambaram
(D) Kapil Sibbal
Ans : (B)
102. The first woman to be the Speaker of Lok Sabha is—
(A) Vijay Lakshmi Pandit
(B) Sarojini Naidu
(C) Indira Gandhi
(D) Meira Kumar
Ans : (D)
103. Which movie has been given the Best Movie Award in 66th Golden Globe Awards ?
(A) Mall E
(B) Slumdog Millionaire
(C) The Dark Night
(D) The Reader
Ans : (B)
104. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
Recent Padma Awardees—Awards
(A) Bhimsen Joshi– Bharat Ratna
(B) Abhinav Bindra – Padma Vibhushan
(C) Shekhar Gupta – Padma Bhushan
(D) Aishwarya Rai – Padma Shri
Ans : (B)
105. Who among the following won the best actor award in the awards ceremony of International Indian Film Academy held at Macau ?
(A) Amitabh Bachchan
(B) Hritik Roshan
(C) Abhishek Bachchan
(D) Salman Khan
Ans : (B)
106. Where did Prime Minsiter Manmohan Singh, having taken charge of the new government after 2009 elections, meet Pakistan President Asif Ali Zardari for the first time ?
(A) Cairo
(B) London
(C) Shanghai
(D) Yekaterinburg
Ans : (D)
107. Which among the following countries attended as observers the Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) Summit held on 16 June 2009 ?
1. Russia
2. India
3. Pakistan
4. Iran
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (D)
108. Name the player who has been awarded the 2008 Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award ?
(A) Sachin Tendulkar
(B) Anil Kumble
(C) Gautam Gambhir
(D) M. S. Dhoni
Ans : (D)
109. The only Indian Gold Medal Winner in Olympic 2008 is—
(A) Sudesh Kumar
(B) Pankaj Advani
(C) Mahesh Bhupati
(D) Abhinav Bindra
Ans : (D)
110. The winner of Asia Cup Hockey Tournament, 2009 was—
(A) China
(B) Malaysia
(C) Pakistan
(D) South Korea
Ans : (D)
111. The winner State of 17th Senior National Women’s Football Championship held in March 2009, was—
(A) Manipur
(B) Nagaland
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) West Bengal
Ans : (A)
112. The two games, which have been excluded from the Olympic Games to be held in 2012 in London, are—
(A) Badminton and Table Tennis
(B) Basketball and Volleyball
(C) Tennis and Wrestling
(D) Softball and Baseball
Ans : (D)
113. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Sushil Kumar—Wrestling
(B) Anand Pawar—Badminton
(C) Arjun Rao—Archery
(D) Pankaj Advani—Shooting
Ans : (D)
114. The captain of the Indian Hockey Team which won Sultan Azlan Shah Hockey Tournament, 2009 was—
(A) Dilip Tirkey
(B) Rajpal Singh
(C) Sandeep Singh
(D) V. Raghunath
Ans : (C)
115. Asia Cup Hockey Tournament was held in May 2009 in—
(A) India
(B) Malaysia
(C) South Korea
(D) UAE
Ans : (B)
116. In which of the following States the National Games, 2011 will be held ?
(A) Delhi
(B) Goa
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Rajasthan
Ans : (B)
117. A cropping system where crops are grown in the inter spaces between rows of planted trees is called—
(A) Relay cropping
(B) Mixed cropping
(C) Inter-cropping
(D) Alley cropping
Ans : (D)
118. Application of gypsum is required more in the crop of—
(A) Paddy
(B) Berseem
(C) Wheat
(D) Groundnut
Ans : (A)
119. The upper limit of available water in soil is determined at—
(A) 1/3 bar
(B) 1/2 bar
(C) 2/3 bar
(D) 1 bar
Ans : (A)
120. The place of origin of red gram is—
(A) America
(B) India
(C) South Africa
(D) Egypt
Ans : (C)
121. University of Horticulture and Forestry is located at—
(A) Coimbatore
(B) Solan
(C) Palampur
(D) Pant Nagar
Ans : (B)
122. Heroin is obtained from—
(A) Indian hemp
(B) Opium poppy
(C) Tobacco
(D) Arecanut
Ans : (B)
123. The leading producer of soybean in India is—
(A) Chhattisgarh
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans : (B)
124. ‘Varuna’ is a variety of—
(A) Mustard
(B) Linseed
(C) Sunflower
(D) Sesamum
Ans : (A)
125. Farming of cloves is done in—
(A) Kerala
(B) Karnataka
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans : (A)
126. Consider the following statements—
Assertion (A) : West Bengal is the leading producer of fish in India.
Reason (R) : West Bengal has well developed fishing industry along the sea coast.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (C)
127. In India the largest area under rice cultivation lies in the State of—
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Orissa
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) West Bengal
Ans : (C)
128. The most popular sport goods come from—
(A) Ludhiana
(B) Jalandhar
(C) Kanpur
(D) Agra
Ans : (B)
129. Which bank became the first bank to open its branch in China ?
(A) IDBI Bank
(B) HDFC Bank
(C) State Bank of India
(D) Punjab National Bank
Ans : (C)
130. After the merger of Air India and Indian Airlines, the new entity is now known as—
(A) Indian Airways
(B) India Airlines
(C) Air India
(D) Indo-Air
Ans : (A)
131. Which sector got high rate of growth in its cooperative units ?
(A) Sugar
(B) Cotton textile
(C) Jute
(D) Cement
Ans : (B)
132. The headquarters of the World Bank are at—
(A) Manila
(B) Washington
(C) New York
(D) Geneva
Ans : (B)
133. Inside trading is related to—
(A) Share market
(B) Horse racing
(C) Taxation
(D) International trade
Ans : (A)
134. Mixed Economy means—
(A) Co-existence of small and large industries
(B) Co-existence of public and private sectors
(C) Co-existence of rich and poor
(D) Promoting both agriculture and industry in the economy
Ans : (B)
135. Diesel Locomotive engines are manufactured in India at—
(A) Chitranjan
(B) Jamshedpur
(C) Varanasi
(D) Chennai
Ans : (C)
136. Invisible Export means export of—
(A) Services
(B) Prohibited goods
(C) Unrecorded goods
(D) Goods through smuggling
Ans : (A)
137. The headquarters of World Trade Organization are at—
(A) Doha
(B) Geneva
(C) Rome
(D) New York
Ans : (B)
138. The city of Jaunpur was founded by—
(A) Muhammad Tughlaq
(B) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
(C) Ibrahim Shah Sharqi
(D) Sikandar Lodi
Ans : (B)
139. The density of population of Uttar Pradesh according to 2001 Census, is—
(A) 689 per square km
(B) 589 per square km
(C) 489 per square km
(D) 389 per square km
Ans : (A)
140. In U.P. which one of the following tribes has the highest population ?
(A) Saharia
(B) Tharu
(C) Agaria
(D) Mahigir
Ans : (B)
141. The State of Uttar Pradesh accounts for—
(A) 60 Lok Sabha seats
(B) 70 Lok Sabha seats
(C) 80 Lok Sabha seats
(D) 90 Lok Sabha seats
Ans : (C)
142. Obra Thermal Power Plant was established with the help of—
(A) Soviet Russia
(B) Japan
(C) Germany
(D) America
Ans : (A)
143. According to 2001 Census the female literacy percentage in U.P. is—
(A) 38•87
(B) 43•53
(C) 33•12
(D) 42•22
Ans : (D)
144. Which is the highest Dam in U.P. ?
(A) Mata-Tila
(B) Meja
(C) Rihand
(D) Ram-Ganga
Ans : (D)
145. In U.P. Uranium is available in the district of—
(A) Lalitpur
(B) Jhansi
(C) Mirjapur
(D) Hamirpur
Ans : (A)
146. Firozabad is famous for producing—
(A) Bangles
(B) Locks
(C) Knives
(D) Shoes
Ans : (A)
147. Which one of the following is not a folk song of U.P. ?
(A) Birha
(B) Dhola Maru
(C) Kajri
(D) Rasia
Ans : (B)
148. Syed Salar Fair is held at—
(A) Bahraich
(B) Mankapur
(C) Barabanki
(D) Khalilabad
Ans : (A)
149. In U.P. Urdu Training and Research Centre is situated in—
(A) Barabanki
(B) Bareilly
(C) Lucknow
(D) Rampur
Ans : (C)
150. Central Institute of Subtropical Horticulture is located at—
(A) Jhansi
(B) Saharanpur
(C) Lucknow
(D) Varanasi
Ans : (C)

CTET 2011 Paper - II Solved Question Paper

  
Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) conducted CTET Examination 2011 on 26 June 2011.
 
INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATES

1. The OMR Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 carefully with blue/black  ball point pen only.

2. The test is of 1 and half hours duration and consists of 150 questions. There is no negative marking.

3. Use Blue / Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page / marking responses in the Answer Sheet.

4. The CODE for this Booklet is P. Make sure that the CODE printed on Side-2 of the Answer Sheet is the same as that on this booklet. Also ensure that your Test Booklet No. and Answer Sheet No. are the same. In case of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the Invigilator for replacement of both the Test Booklet and the Answer Sheet.

5. This Test Booklet has five Parts, I, II, III, IV and V, consisting of 150 Objective Type Questions, each carrying 1 mark:

Part I : Child Development and Pedagogy    (Q. 1 to Q. 30)

Part II: Mathematics and Science                (Q. 31 to Q. 90)

Part III: Social Studies / Social Science        (Q. 31 to Q. 90)

Part IV: Language I- (English/Hindi)            (Q. 91 to Q. 120)

Part V : Language II - (EngIish/Hindi)          (Q. 121 to Q. 150)

6. Candidates have to do questions 31 to 90 EITHER from Part II (Mathematics and Science) OR from Part III (Social Studies/Social Science).

7. Part IV contains 30 questions for Language I and Part V contains 30 questions for Language II. In this test booklet, only questions pertaining to English and Hindi language have been given. In case the language/s you have opted for as Language I and/or Language II is a language other than English or Hindi, please ask for a Test Booklet that contains questions on that language. The languages being answered must tally with the languages opted for in your Application Form.

8. Candidates are required to attempt questions in Part V (Language II) in a language other than the one chosen as Language I (in Part IV) from the list of languages.

9. Rough work should be done only in the space provided in the Test Booklet for the same.

10. The answers are to be recorded on the OMR Answer Sheet only. Mark your responses carefully. No whitener is allowed for changing answers.

PART I 

CHILD DEVELOPMENT AND PEDAGOGY

Directions : Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option.

1. A creative learner refers to one who is

(1) very talented in drawing and painting

(2) highly intelligent

(3) capable of scoring consistently good marks in tests

(4) good at lateral thinking and problem solving
Ans: (4)

2. Individual learners differ from each other in

(1) principles of growth and development

(2) rate of development

(3) sequence of development

(4) general capacity for development
Ans: (2)

3. Every learner is unique means that

(1) No two learners are alike in their abilities, interests and talents

(2) Learners do not have any common qualities, nor do they share common goals

(3) A common curriculum for all learners is not possible

(4) It is impossible to develop the potential of learners in a heterogeneous class
Ans: (1)

4. Constructivism as a theory

(1) focuses on the role of imitation

(2) emphasises the role of the learner in constructing his own view of the world

(3) emphasises on memorising information and testing through recall

(4) emphasises on the dominant role of the teacher
Ans: (2)

5. Development of concepts is primarily a part of

(1) emotional development

(2)  intellectual development

(3) physical development

(4) social development
Ans: (2)

6. Heredity is considered as a social structure.

(1) primary

(2) secondary

(3) dynamic

(4) static
Ans: (4)

7. The most intense and crucial socialization takes place

(1) throughout the life of a person

(2) during adolescence

(3) during early childhood

(4) during adulthood
Ans: (2)

8. Helping learners recapitulate or recall what they have already learnt is important because

(1) it is a convenient beginning for any classroom instruction

(2) relating new information to prior knowledge enhances learning

(3) it is an effective way of revising old lessons

(4) it enhances the memory of learners thereby strengthening learning
Ans: (2)

9. According to Piaget, during the first stage of development (birth to about 2 years age), a child learns best

(1) by using the senses

(2) by comprehending neutral words

(3) by thinking in an abstract fashion

(4) by applying newly acquired knowledge of language
Ans: (1)

10. Theory of learning which totally and only depends on 'observable behaviour' is associated with theory of learning.

(1) Cognitivist

(2) Developmental

(3) Behaviourist

(4) Constructivist
Ans: (3)

11. Multilingual character of Indian society should be seen as

(1) a hindrance in teaching-learning process

(2) a resource for enrichment of school life

(3) a challenge to teacher's capacity to motivate students to learn

(4) a factor that makes school life a complex experience for the learners
Ans: (2)

12. Creative answers require

(1) direct teaching and direct questions

(2) content-based questions

(3) open-ended questions

(4) a highly disciplined classroom
Ans: (3)

13. Diagnosis of the gaps In the learning of students should be followed by

(1) appropriate remedial measures

(2) intensive drill and practice.

(3) systematic revision of all lessons

(4) reporting the findings to learners and parents
Ans: (1)

14. Which of the following statements cannot be considered as a feature of 'learning' ?

(1) Learning is a process that mediates behaviour

(2) Learning is something that occurs as a result of certain experiences

(3) Study of behaviour is learning

(4) Unlearning is also a part of learning
Ans: (3)

15. 'Self-regulation' of learners refers to

(1) their ability to monitor their own learning

(2) creating regulations for student behaviour

(3) rules and regulations made by the student body

(4) self-discipline and control
Ans: (1)

16. Which of the following does not reflect 'teaching for understanding' ?

(1) Ask students to explain a phenomenon or a concept in their own words

(2) Teach students to provide examples to illustrate how a law works

(3) Help students see similarities and differences and generate analogies

(4) Enable students to memorize isolated facts and procedures
Ans: (4)

17. Which of the following statements is true about 'learning' ?

(1) Errors made by children indicate that no learning has taken place.

(2) Learning is effective in an environment that is emotionally positive and satisfying for the learners.

(3) Learning is not affected by emotional factors at any stage of learning.

(4) Learning is fundamentally a mental activity.
Ans: (2)

18. Human development is based on certain principles. Which of the following is not a principle of human development?

(1) Continuity

(2) Sequentiality

(3) General to Specific

(4) Reversible
Ans: (4)

19. The main purpose of assessment should be

(1) to point out the errors of the learners

(2) to measure the achievement of learners

(3) to decide if a student should be promoted to the next class

(4) to diagnose and remedy gaps in learning
Ans: (4)

20. Centrally sponsored scheme of Integrated Education for disabled children aims at providing educational opportunities to children with disabilities in

(1) regular schools

(2) special schools

(3) open schools

(4) Blind Relief Association schools
Ans: (1)

21. Which of the following is not a sign of reading difficulty among young learners? Difficulty in

(1) letter and word recognition

(2) reading speed and fluency

(3) understanding words and ideas

(4) spelling consistency
Ans: (3)

22. A teacher wants the gifted children of her 'class to achieve their potential. Which of the following should she not do to achieve her objective?

(1) Teach them to enjoy non-academic activities

(2) Teach them to manage stress

(3) Segregate them from their peers for special attention

(4) Challenge them to enhance their creativity
Ans: (3)

23. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of intrinsically motivated children?

(1) They always succeed

(2) They enjoy doing their work

(3) They display a high level of energy while working

(4) They like challenging tasks
Ans: (1)

24. Which of the following is not an appropriate tool for Formative Assessment?

(1) Assignment

(2) Oral questions

(3) Term test

(4) Quiz and games
Ans: (3)

25. Learners should not be encouraged to

(1) ask as many questions as possible both inside and outside the class

(2) actively interact with other learners in group work

(3) participate in as many co-curricular activities as possible

(4) memorize all the answers to questions which the teacher may ask
Ans: (4)

26. Irfan breaks toys and dismantles them to explore their components. What would you do?

(1) Never let Irfan play with toys

(2) Always keep a close watch

(3) Encourage his inquisitive nature and channelise his energy

(4) Make him understand that toys should not be broken
Ans: (3)

27. The statement 'Men are generally more intelligent than women'    

(1) is true

(2) may be true

(3) shows gender bias

(4) is true for different domains of intelligence
Ans: (3)

28. Understanding the principles of development of a child helps a teacher in

(1) identifying the social status of the learner

(2) identifying the economic background of the learner

(3) rationalizing why the learner ought to be taught

(4) effectively catering to the different learning styles of learners
Ans: (4)

29. Christina took her class for a field trip and after coming back, she discussed the trip with her students. It may be connotated as

(1) Assessment of Learning

(2) Assessment for Learning

(3) Learning for Assessment

(4) Learning of Assessment
Ans: (1)

30. The statement: 'An important precondition for the proper development of a child is ensuring her/his healthy physical development'

(1) is untrue as physical development does not affect other domains of development in anyway

(2) may be incorrect as development varies from individual to individual

(3) is true because physical development occupies the topmost place In the sequence of development

(4) is true because physical development is interrelated with other domains of development
Ans: (4)

Candidates have to do questions 31 to 90 EITHER from Part II (Mathematics and Science) OR from Part III (Social Studies/Social Science).

PART II

MATHEMATICS AND SCIENCE

Directions: Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option.

31. The ratio between the length and the perimeter of a rectangular plot is 1:3. What is the ratio between the length and breadth of the plot?

(1) 1: 2

(2) 2: 1

(3) 3: 2

(4) Data inadequate

Ans: (2)

32. If a * b = a² + b² and a . b = a² - b² , the value of (5 * 2) . 25 is

^{(1) 215}

^{(2) 225}

^{(3) 226}

^{(4) 216}

Ans: (4)

33. If a, b and c are three natural numbers in ascending order, then

(1) c² - a² > b

(2) c² - a² = b²  

(3) c² - a² < b²    

(4) c² + b² = a²

Ans: (1)

34. 'Buy three, get one free.' What is the percentage of discount being offered here ?

(1) 33.33%    

(2) 25%    

(3) 20%    

(4) 28.56%

Ans: (1)

35. The Value of √2 + √3 + √2 - √3 is

(1) √6

(2) 6

(3) 2√2

(4) 2√3

Ans: (3)

36. When recast, the radius of an iron rod is made one-fourth. If its volume remains constant, then the new length will become

(1) 1/4 times of the original

(2) 1/16 times of the original

(3) 16 times of the original

(4) 4 times of the original

Ans: (3)

37. Find the value of 547527/82 if 547.527/0.0082 = x

(1) x/10

(2) 10 x

(3) 100 x

(4) x/100

Ans: (3)

38. The smallest number by which 68600 must be multiplied to get a perfect cube is

(1) 5

(2) 10

(3) 8

(4) 12

Ans: (1)

39. A cyclist at 'C' is cycling towards 'B'. How far will he have to cycle from C before he is equidistant from both A and B ?



(1) 4 km

(2) 3 km

(3) 6 km

(4) 5 km

Ans: (4)

40. Unit's digit in 13²⁰⁰³ is

(1) 1    

(2) 3    

(3) 7    

(4) 9

Ans: (3)

41. A square sheet ABCD when rotated on its diagonal AC as its axis of rotation sweeps a



(1) cone

(2) spindle

(3) cylinder

(4) trapezium

Ans: (2)

42. The area of a triangle with base x units is equal to the area of a square with side x units. Then the altitude of the triangle is

(1) x/2 units

(2) x units

(3) 2x units

(4) 3x units

Ans: (3)

43. Which is greatest among 33 and half %; 4/15 and 0.35 ?

(1) 33 and half %

(2) 4/15

(3) 0.35

(4) Cannot be compared

Ans: (3)

44. The factorisation of 25 - p² - q² - 2pq is

(1) (5 + p + q) (5 - p + q)

(2) (5 + p + q) (5 - P - q)

(3) (5 + p - q) (5 - p + q)

(4) (5 + p - q) (5 - p - q)

Ans: (2)

45. A rectangle is divided horizontally into two equal parts. The upper part is further divided into three equal parts and the lower part is divided into four equal parts.Which fraction of the original rectangle the shaded part ?



(1) 3/5

(2) 2/7

(3) 4/7

(4) 7/12

Ans: (4)

46. In the given figure, PS = SQ = SR and  L SPQ = 54°. Find the measure of  L x.



(1) 54°

(2) 72°

(3) 108°

(4) 36°

Ans: (1)

47. 2x - 13, 2x - 11, 2x - 9, 2x - 7 are consecutive

(1) Prime numbers

(2) Even numbers

(3) Odd numbers

(4) Natural numbers

Ans: (3)

48. The fractional equivalent of 57.12% (approx.) is

(1) 349/625

(2) 359/625

(3) 357/625

(4) 347/625

Ans: (3)

49. The ratio of the side and height of an equilateral triangle is

(1) 2 : 1

(2) 1 : 1

(3) 2 : √3

(4) √3 : 2

Ans: (3)

50. If two adjacent sides of a square paper are decreased by 20% and 40% respectively, by what percentage does the new area decrease?

(1) 48%

(2) 50%

(3) 52%

(4) 60%

Ans:

51. 4/16 - 1/8 = 3/8

6/7 - 2/9 = 4/2

The above represents the work of a student. If this error pattern continues, the student's answer to 5/11 - 2/7 will be

(1) 7/18

(2) 3/4

(3) 3/7

(4) 2/18

Ans: (2)

52. A teacher in grade-VI provided each child with a centimeter grid paper and a pair of scissors. She wanted them to explore how two-dimensional shapes can be folded into three-dimensional objects. Which of the following concepts are the students exploring?

(1) Rotation

(2) Reflection

(3) Nets

(4) Decimals

Ans:

53. When doing exponents, the work observed in a learner's notebook was as follows :

4³ x 4² = 4⁵

6⁴ x 6⁴ = 6⁸

7³ x 3⁷ = 21¹⁰

The learner has not understood how to

(1) add exponents

(2) add exponents and multiply

(3) multiply numbers with same base

(4) multiply numbers with different bases

Ans: (4)

54. Teachers, while discussing problem-solving as an approach to teaching of mathematics, articulated four views. Which of the following views does not justify the real meaning of this approach?

(1) 'I think questions on problem-solving should be made from situations based on real life.'

(2) 'I think many questions found in the mathematics textbook can be used for problem-solving.'

(3) 'I think it is better to connect problem-solving with general mathematics class.' 

(4) 'I think there is no correlation between problem-solving and mathematical reasoning.'

Ans:

55. Given linear equations I, II and III, a learner is not able to solve III algebraically. The most likely area of difficulty is that the learner has not understood

           

               

(1) that two equations can be added or subtracted to solve them

(2) that two equations can be solved by method of substitution

(3) the method of solving equations using graphs

(4) that both the equations in III can be altered by multiplying with suitable numbers

Ans: (2)

56.When introducing mensuration, a teacher writes all the formulae on the board before proceeding further. This reflects that she is following the

(1) Inductive approach

(2) Deductive approach

(3) Experimental approach

(4) Practical approach

Ans: (2)

57. Ameena is playing with matchsticks and adds one  at each stage :  Appu, on the other hand, makes a table:  

Number of L's	1	2	3	...
Number of matchsticks	2	4	6	..

What is your observation about the two children in this situation?

(1) Ameena is only playing and Appu is doing mathematics

(2) Ameena will need lots of matchsticks to come to a generalisation. However, Appu would be faster

(3) Both Ameena and Appu are trying to make generalisations

(4) Ameena would be learning by doing and Appu may not be able to see the pattern at all

Ans: (1)

58. To be good in mathematics, one needs to

(1) remember solutions

(2) have mastery over calculations

(3)  create and formulate problems through abstract thinking and logical reasoning

(4) memorise formulae

Ans: (3)

59. Students make errors while solving mathematical problems because 

(1) they do not practise enough

(2) they do not refer to multiple textbooks

(3) their socio-economic status affects their performance

(4) they make alternative interpretations of concepts in their attempt to make meaning

Ans: (4)    

60. With an activity on paper folding, a teacher was trying to depict the relationship of the areas of a parallelogram and a triangle. Which of the following best depicts the transformation of stages?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Ans: (4)

61. Bakelite is used in making electrical appliances because it is a

(1) thermoplastic

(2) good conductor of heat

(3) good conductor of electricity

(4) good insulator of electricity

Ans: (4)

62. In which of the following cases of motion, are the distance moved and the magnitude of displacement equal ?

(1) A car moving on a straight road

(2) A car moving in a circular path

(3) A pendulum oscillating to and fro

(4) The Earth revolving around the Sun

Ans: (1)

63. LED and CFL are very commonly used as sources of light in homes. Which of the following statements is true ?

(1) CFL is better because LED contains toxic materials

(2) LED is better because CFL contains toxic materials

(3) Both are equally good

(4) Neither of them is good because both contain toxic materials

Ans: (2)

64. An air bubble inside water behaves like a

(1) concave lens    

(2) convex lens

(3) plano-convex lens

(4) concave mirror

Ans: (1)

65. A feather weighing 5 gm and a nail weighing 10 gm have the same kinetic energy. Which of the following statements is true about the momentum of the two bodies ?    

(1) The lighter body will have higher momentum

(2) The heavier body will have higher momentum

(3) Both will have equal momentum

(4) It is not possible to compare the momentum. of two objects

Ans: (2)

66. If the pressure over a liquid increases, its boiling point

(1) decreases

(2) Increases

(3) does not change

(4) first decreases and then increases

Ans: (2)

67. A doctor prescribes a medicine to treat hyperacidity. The main ingredient of the medicine is 

(1) Al(OH)₃

(2) MgCl₂

(3) CaC0₃

(4) Na₂C0₃

Ans: (1)

68. Non-metallic oxides

(1) are acidic in nature

(2) are basic in nature

(3) are amphoteric in nature

(4) turn red litmus paper blue

Ans: (1)

69. The inner surfaces of food cans are coated with tin and not with zinc because

(1) zinc is costlier than tin

(2) zinc is more reactive than tin

(3) zinc has a higher melting point than tin

(4) zinc is less reactive than tin

Ans: (2)

70. A man goes door to door posing as a goldsmith. He promises to bring back the glitter on dull gold ornaments. An unsuspecting woman gives a set of gold bangles to him which he dips in a particular solution. The bangles sparkle but their weight has considerably reduced. The solution used by the impostor probably is

(1) dil. HCI

(2) cone. HCI

(3) a mixture of cone. HCI and cone. HN0₃

(4) cone. HN0₃

Ans: (3)

71. Bleeding is stopped by the application of alum to a wound because

(1) the wound is plugged by the alum chunk

(2) alum coagulates the blood and forms a clot

(3) alum reduces the temperature near the wound

(4) alum is an antiseptic

Ans: (2)

72. When an iron nail is dipped in copper sulphate solution, the colour of copper sulphate solution fades and a brownish layer is deposited over the iron nail. This is an example of

(1) combination reaction

(2) decomposition reaction

(3) double displacement reaction

(4) displacement and redox reactions

Ans: (4)

73. While diluting sulphuric acid, it is recommended that the acid should be added to water because

(1) acid has strong affinity for water

(2) acid may break the glass container

(3) dilution of acid is highly exothermic

(4) dilution of acid is highly endothermic

Ans: (3)

74. The thumb of humans moves more freely than other fingers due to the presence of

(1) pivotal joint

(2) gliding joint

(3) hinge joint

(4) saddle joint

Ans: (4)

75. Root cap is absent in

(1) Xerophytes

(2) Hydrophytes

(3) Mesophytes

(4) Halophytes

Ans: (2)

76. Adding salt and sugar to food substances helps In preserving them for a longer duration. It is because excess salt and sugar

(1) plasmolyse the microbial cells

(2) cause rupturing of microbial cells

(3) cause change in the shape of microbial cells

(4) remove water from food

Ans: (1)

77. Hormone Adrenaline

(1) helps control level of sugar in the blood

(2) helps the body to adjust stress level when one is very angry or worried

(3) helps control height

(4) helps control balance of electrolytes in the body

Ans: (2)

78. The green house effect which is causing an increase in the atmospheric temperature is mainly due to

(1) oxygen

(2) nitrogen

(3) carbon dioxide

(4) sulphur

Ans: (3)

79. Green plants appear to release oxygen instead of carbon dioxide into the atmosphere during the day time because

(1) green plants do not respire during the night time

(2) green plants respire only during the night time

(3) green plants respire during the day time but are involved in photosynthesis during the night time

(4) the rate of photosynthesis is higher than the rate of respiration during the day time

Ans: (4)

80. A common characteristic feature of plant sieve-tube cells and mammalian erythrocytes is

(1) absence of nucleus

(2) absence of chloroplast

(3) absence of cell wall

(4) presence of haemoglobin

Ans: (1)

81. Most Boards of Education have banned the dissection of animals because

(1) animals are no longer available for dissection

(2) procuring animals has become an expensive proposition

(3) there is a need to sensitise students to prevention of cruelty to animals

(4) they may spread new diseases

Ans: (3)
 
82. The main aim of conducting Mathematics and Science Olympiads is to

(1) promote excellence in the subject by nurturing creativity and experimentation

(2) grade students according to their capabilities

(3) help students score high marks in professional examinations

(4) grade schools based on the performance of their students

Ans: (1)

83. Four applicants for a post of TGT (Science) were asked to plan a lesson on "Consequences of Deforestation", Which one of the following lesson plans reflects the scientific approach ?

(1) Explains in detail the consequences of deforestation

(2) Provides a variety of examples to explain the concept

(3) Includes activities that children can perform in groups and draw conclusions through a Power Point presentation

(4) Mentions about the use of ICT to help students understand the concept

Ans: (3)

84. Ms. Patel, Principal of a School XYZ, is keen about integrated approach to teaching of Science rather than teaching different disciplines separately. The basis of this is

(1) non-availability of qualified teachers in her school to teach separate disciplines

(2) difficulty to adjust the teachers in the time-table

(3) difficulty of students to adjust to different teachers

(4) all the disciplines are interlinked and a teacher can draw on cross-curricular linkages

Ans: (4)

85. A teacher plans to teach "Components of Food" in Class-VI. Which of the following can be used as an essential question ?

(1) List the food items your mother serves you in lunch.

(2) Why does your mother serve you a meal with a variety of food items ?

(3) Does your mother prepare a definite set of food items for lunch every day?

(4) Do you eat all the items served in your lunch every day?

Ans: (2)

86. While teaching the concept, "force can change the shape of an object" to students, a teacher plans the following activities:

a. Explain concepts using commonly observed examples.

b. Provide a dough on a plate and ask the students to press it down with the hand.

c. Show an audio-visual• film explaining the concept with some examples.

The teacher is using different approaches to learning because

(1) she wants to prove her knowledge

(2) she knows she must follow her lesson plan

(3) she wants to prepare students for a test

(4) there are different kinds of learners in the class and she wants to address multiple intelligences

Ans:

87. Which of the following can be assessed when Geeta is using only MCQ as a tool to assess "Nutrition in Humans" ?

(1) Analytical ability to classify food items and make a poster

(2) Misconceptions related to food habits

(3) Learners' ability to apply knowledge and prepare a role play to present in the morning assembly

(4) Learners' ability to comprehend the importance of components of food and write a long essay

Ans: (2)

88. A Science teacher plans group activities to teach "Properties of Air" to her students of Class-VI. Which one set of attributes would she like to have in the students she selects as group leaders ?

(1) Freedom to choose roles, work at their own pace and understanding

(2) Ordering students to take roles and deliver in consonance with their understanding

(3) Giving major roles to brighter students to ensure the group finishes first

(4) Assigning roles as per capability, motivating and coordinating among the group members

Ans: (4)

89. While selecting a performance task to help students develop research oriented skills in a Science class, a teacher may pick up a topic

(1) from the content given in the syllabus which must be completed in time

(2) which majority of the students in a class find interesting

(3) which she thinks is important for the students

(4) related to a problem faced by students in their day-to-day functioning and which is a part of the concepts to be covered for this class

Ans: (4)

90. While investigating 'how water affects the germination of seeds', a teacher asked the students to soak bean seeds on a bed of cotton wool for a few days and observe the changes. What is the guideline that she forgot to mention?
To place

(1) many seeds on wet cotton

(2) a few seeds on wet cotton

(3) many seeds on dry cotton

(4) a few seeds on dry cotton

Ans: (2)

Candidates have to do questions 31 to 90 EITHER from Part II (Mathematics and Science) OR from Part III (Social Studies/Social Science).

PART III

SOCIAL STUDIES / SOCIAL SCIENCE

Directions: Based on your reading of the passage given below, answer the next three questions (Q. No. 31 to 33) , by selecting the most appropriate option.

A Letter For You

"'Civics is boring.' You may have heard this from your students. You may have felt that they had a point. Syllabi of Civics in our country tends to focus on formal political institutions of government. The textbooks are full of constitutional, legal and procedural details presented in a dry and abstract manner. No wonder children experience a disconnect between the theory they read in the textbook and what they see in real life around them. This is perhaps what makes Civics 'boring' for young adults in a country otherwise full of passion for politics."

Source: Democratic Politics-I
IX Social Science

31. What is the context in which the word 'disconnect' is used in the passage ?

(1) Civics teaching is dull in schools

(2) Children find themselves unable to relate what happens in the real world with what they read in the textbooks

(3) It is related to how Civics textbooks are written and transacted

(4) It is related to the attitude of students towards schooling in general and Civics in particular

Ans:

32. Which one of the following exemplifies the best pedagogical practice for the classroom in transacting the Civics syllabi?

(1) The teacher teaches the Civics textbook cover to cover explaining everything in detail and prepares students well.

(2) The teacher makes the subject interesting by relating anecdotes and short stories but believes firmly in the textbook and lecture method.

(3) The teacher follows her lesson plan meticulously and uses many reference books for making notes.

(4) The teacher involves her students in youth parliament and encourages them to critically analyse the content in the textbooks by comparing it with what they see in reality.

Ans:

33. The 'dry and abstract' presentation of content in Civics textbooks can be brought alive by a teacher    

(1) through real life examples and episodes followed by debates and, discussions

(2) if the abstract aspects are quickly glossed over

(3) through very clear and thorough explanation of the dry concepts

(4) with the help of short tests to reinforce the difficult concepts

Ans:

34. Which one of the following statements about water conservation is incorrect ?

(1) Water is a non-renewable resource.

(2) Underground water level could be improved with forest or vegetation covers.

(3) Controlling surface runoff is one of the ways to conserve water.

(4) Sprinklers effectively control evaporation.

Ans:

35. Around 3900 years ago, the earliest cities, Harappa and Mohanjodaro, began to come to an end because of various reasons, Which one of the following is not one of those reasons?

(1) There was internal rivalry and warfare between cities                                
           
(2) Deforestation and     floods brought in destruction                                
                        
(3) Grazing of green cover by herds of cattle destroyed the soil cover                    
                       
(4) Rivers dried up leading to the end of the cities

Ans:                                

36. Most of the 'Mahajanapadas' were fortified because

(1) of availability of wood, brick and stones, in the area

(2) they reflected their wealth and power

(3) the rulers were scared of attack and wanted to ensure they were protected

(4) they were symbols of their 'rich' warrior tradition

Ans:

37. When it is 10:00 a.m. in London in June, the Indian Standard Time will be

(1) 2:30 p.m.            

(2) 3:00 p.m.                

(3) 3:30 p.m.                

(4) 2:00 p.m.

Ans:                 

38. In the following diagram, which arrow shows the South-East direction?



(1) D

(2) B

(3) F

(4) H

Ans:

39. A map uses a scale in which 1 cm on the map covers 20 meters on the ground. If two places are 5 cm apart on the map, the actual distance between them is

(1) 20 meters

(2) 150 meters

(3) 200 meters

(4) 100 meters

Ans:

40. For creating an effective administration practice in India, which one of the following was adopted by the British Government?

(1) Military expedition

(2) Practice of surveying

(3) Practice of land revenue collection

(4) Practice of exploiting native population

Ans:

41. The two main systems of Indigo cultivation were

(1) Nij and Kij

(2) Nij and Ryoti

(3) Kharif and Rabi

(4) Nij and terrace farming

Ans:

42. What problems did shifting cultivators face under the British rule?

(1) Exploitation

(2) Decline in their agricultural production

(3) Their movement was restricted

(4) Unemployment

Ans:

43. What was the main reason behind the destruction of Somnath temple by Sultan Mahmud of Ghazni ?

(1) He wanted to build a palace there

(2) He did not like the architecture of the temple

(3) He tried to win credit as a great hero of Islam

(4) He wanted to use the temple for some other purpose

Ans:

44. During the medieval period in India, temples were regarded as a hub of

(1) architecture

(2) cultural activities

(3) extensive foreign trade

(4) Sufi movement

Ans:

45. In Bengal, temples and other religious structures were often built by individuals or groups who were becoming powerful in order to

(1) ensure that they did good 'karma'

(2) demonstrate a marvel of architecture to the society

(3) add value to the surroundings

(4) demonstrate their power, proclaim their piety and gain followers

Ans:

46. A system of structure and practice in which men dominate, oppress and exploit women is called

(1) Hierarchy

(2) Fascism

(3) Monarchy

(4) Patriarchy

Ans:

47. Which of the following statements is not an objective of social advertising?    

(1) To change attitudes and mindset, as people influence people

(2) To target social networks and social groups

(3) To advertise products on social networking sites for personal commercial value

(4) To motivate members of the public to engage in voluntary social activity

Ans:

48. Which of the following statements about 'prasastis' is an incorrect statement ?

(1) The achievements of rulers or kings are described in 'prasastis'.

(2) They were written by scholars/poets/ learned people for the purpose of praising the kings and earning their patronage.

(3) Usually the kings themselves wrote them.

(4) They are valuable sources of history of the period to which they belong.

Ans:

49. What does PHC stand for?        

(1) Private Health Centre            

(2) Public Health Court            

(3) Public Health Centre            

(4) Public Health Corporation

Ans:             
                   
50. Which of the following is not a primary economic activity ?                    

(1) Mining                        

(2) Agriculture                    

(3) Trading                        

(4) Fishing

Ans:                         

51. Industrialists set up industries when

(1) they can develop their own native places

(2) they find favourable government policies

(3) towns can be developed

(4) incentives provided by the government reduce their profit

Ans:

52. Which one of the following explains the term 'market' ?    

(1) A local area which has conducive conditions for setting up an industry

(2) A shop to sell the goods manufactured by the industrialist

(3) The potential trade in a particular type of good being produced by an industry

(4) A mall which sells products

Ans:

53. Which of the following pedagogical approaches exhibited by four different teachers for teaching 'Industrialisation' is most appropriate ?

(1) The teacher believes that she must cover the entire process of industrialisation in detail and brings in copious material to the class

(2) The teacher asks the class to read the entire lesson silently and asks questions if they have not understood

(3) The teacher is a believer in the timeless glory of the textbook and teaches by explaining every word and asking comprehension questions to students

(4) The teacher is aware of multiple approaches to pedagogy and plans a trip to an industry in the nearby area to demonstrate the concepts, discuss and debate in groups the issues and then in a plenary, sum up the conclusions

Ans:

54. Which of the following statements about 'ancient manuscripts' is not correct?

(1) Some manuscripts were engraved on stone or metal

(2) They were usually written on palm leaves

(3) They are the primary sources of the period they reflect

(4) They were handwritten and then printed

Ans:

55. In the middle of the 19^th century, British historians divided history of India into three periods - Hindu India, Muslim India and British India. What is the basis of this division?

(1) It was convenient and easy to remember

(2) It was based on the idea that religion of the rulers was an important historical change

(3) History of England is also written in a similar way

(4) Britishers felt they were more knowledgeable at that point of time in history and so used this division

Ans:

56. Match the following and pick the correct option:

a. Agriculture          I. Cultivation of grapes

b. Horticulture        II. Growing crops and farming

c. Pisiculture           III. Growing flowers, fruits and vegetables

d. Viticulture           IV. Breeding of fish

(1) a-I, b-IV, c-II, d-III

(2) a-II, h-III, c-IV, d-I

(3) a-III, b-R, c-I, d-IV

(4) a-II, b-IV, c-III, d-I

Ans:

57. Which development facilitated the debates and discussions about social customs and practices on a wider scale during the 19th century?

(1) Magazines

(2) Theatre

(3) Movies

(4) Radio

Ans:

58. Social reformers like Raja Ram Mohan Roy used the following strategy to campaign about the prevailing social injustices (e.g. sati) against women.

(1) They took the help of the popular social milieu

(2) They used the influence of the government

(3) They used a verse or sentence which is in the ancient sacred texts to prove their stand

(4) They took the help of popular nationalist leaders

Ans:

Directions: Based on your reading of the passage given below, answer the next two questions (Q.No. 59 & 60), by selecting the most appropriate option.

"By the end of the nineteenth century, women themselves were actively working for reform. They wrote books, edited magazines, founded schools and training centres and set up women's associations. From the early twentieth century, they formed political pressure groups to push through laws for female suffrage (the right to vote) and better health -care and education for women. Women from all communities joined various kinds of 'nationalist and socialist movements from the 1920s.
In the twentieth century, leaders such as Jawaharlal Nehru and Subhas Chandra Bose lent their support to demands for greater equality and freedom for women. Nationalist leaders promised that there would be full suffrage for all men and women after Independence. However, till then they asked women to concentrate on the anti-British struggles."

Source: 'Our Pasts'-III, Part-II

59. Which of the following statements best describes the inference that can be drawn from the above extract with respect to the strategy used by leaders of India's national movement?

(l) Participation of women would make the struggle for Independence much more attractive

(2) Women and men were encouraged to follow a policy of 'give and take'

(3) Indian women through their speeches could draw many more people into the movement

(4) Nationalist leaders enlisted the support of the women to their cause by promising them the right to vote after Independence

Ans:

60. Which one of the following statements regarding women's rights is untrue based on the passage?

(1) Women were now becoming vocal in their demands for rights, including political rights

(2) Many women from all communities came forward to join the struggle for freedom

(3) Women got the support of nationalist leaders

(4) Women's writings were not appreciated

Ans:

61. "Throughout the 19th century, most educated women were taught at home by liberal fathers and husbands instead of sending them to schools,"

Which of -the following statements is not a correct reason for the above trend ?

(1) People feared that schools would take girls away from home

(2) Men derived great pleasure by teaching girls at home

(3) Girls had to travel through public places in order to reach school and their safety remained a concern

(4) There was a fear that schooling would prevent girls from doing their domestic duties

Ans:

62. Why is mining called a primary activity?

(1) It involves production from the natural resources of the earth

(2) It is one of the earliest forms of human activities

(3) It brings a lot of money to the government

(4) It is the biggest employer of workers

Ans:

63. Which of the following is not a mineral ?    

(1) Graphite in pencil

(2) Salt used for cooking

(3) Gold and silver in jewellery

(4) Mica used for insulation

Ans:

64. Which of the following was not a problem faced by India soon after Independence?

(1) Wealth and debts to be equally distributed among India, Pakistan and Great Britain

(2) Persuading the Princely States to join the Indian Union

(3) Economic development

(4) Refugees from Pakistan

Ans:

65. Though India chose universal adult franchise after becoming independent, this was withheld in many other sovereign countries on the basis of certain criteria. Which of the following was not one of the criteria?

(1) Education

(2) Religion

(3) Gender

(4) Property

Ans:

66. Which one of the following statements explains the essence of 'mixed economy' ?

(1) Both the States and Centre divide responsibility towards economic development

(2) Both the Public and the Private sector play a significant role m increasing production and generation of jobs

(3) Both the Public and the Private sector share the profits generated in the economy equally

(4) Both the Central and State Governments have a say in the legislation controlling the economy of the country

Ans:

67. Which one among the following is not a feature of 'Lithosphere' ?

(1) 97% of the Earth's water lies in the Lithosphere

(2) Landforms are found on ocean floor also

(3) Mineral wealth is found in this sphere

(4) Mountains, plateaus and valleys form a part of Lithosphere

Ans:

68. Which one of the following cannot be said about our 'planet 'Earth' ?    

(1) It is a perfect sphere

(2) It is slightly flattened at the Poles

(3) It has a bulge in the middle

(4) It is called the 'blue planet'

Ans:

69. Ocean water keeps moving continuously unlike the calm water of ponds and lakes. Which one of the following categories is not one of the movements of water?

(1) Waves

(2) Water cycle

(3) Tides

(4) Currents

70. Which of the following is not an advantage of high tides?

(1) They help in fishing

(2) Electricity could be generated from them

(3) They help the local economy by drawing tourists

(4) Navigation is easier

Ans:

Directions: Based on your reading of the case study given below, answer the next two questions (Q. No.71 & 72), by selecting the most appropriate option.

Rashmi has the habit of asking the surnames of persons whom she comes across for the first time. She has to place the concerned person in the varna system of Indian society. This enquiry about caste identity is resented by many people though it is not expressed openly. Things are more complicated. when' she meets a person from another region or part of India. She is unable to figure out their caste status even if that person reveals the surname. This 'world view' of Rashmi, according to her, does not affect/influence her teaching-learning transaction process. She says that it is part of her primary socialization and she cannot help it.

71. Primary socialization is

(1) social networking at the primary level

(2) learning from family and friends at an early age

(3) learning from society during adolescence

(4) memorising and imitating the teacher

Ans:

72. The resentment is justified because the teacher's attitude

(1) highlights the need for socialization

(2) is purely based on personal biases

(3) is not an indictment of the stereotypes it creates'

(4) perpetuates social, political and economic inequalities

Ans:

73. Most people during the 19th century felt education will have a 'corrupting' influence on women. Which of the following brings out the contextual meaning of 'corrupting' in the above sentence?

(1) Women were more corrupt than men

(2) It would bring them more money

(3) The power they gain through education would take them away from their traditional roles

(4) They would become impure

Ans:

74. A teacher gives the following exercise to her students: Imagine you are a member of a nomadic community that shifts residence every 3 months. How would this change your life?

(1) The question will prove that a student's life is far safer and more enjoyable than the life of people in such situations

(2) The question will make students less egocentric and promote universal brotherhood

(3) The question will impress upon the students that facts are more important than reflection in Social Science

(4) The question will help students place themselves in new situations to gain a better understanding of the concepts involved

Ans:

Directions: Based on your reading of the passage given below, answer the next two questions (Q. No.75 & 76), by selecting the most appropriate option.

"The popular perception of Social Science is that it is a non-utility subject. As a result, low self-esteem governs the classroom transactions, with both teachers and students feeling uninterested in comprehending its contents. From the initial stages of schooling, it is often suggested to students that the Natural Sciences are superior to the Social Sciences."

Source: NCF - 2005,
Teaching of Social Sciences

75. What is the context in which the term 'non-utility subject' is used in the above extract?

(1) Social Science has nothing to offer to improve human civilization

(2) Studying Social Science does not lead to well-paid jobs and material wealth

(3) Social Science is a subject that cannot be learnt for its utility

(4) Social Science is a dry and difficult subject having no use for educators or learners

Ans:

76. Which of the following best conveys the essence of the above extract?    

(1) The way Social Science is taught to students does not enthuse them to take Social Science seriously

(2) Natural Sciences need to be given importance in school curriculum

(3) Students considered good in Natural Sciences are considered bright

(4) Social Sciences are inferior to Natural Sciences since they are non-utilitarian subjects

Ans:

77. The significance of language in teaching-learning of Social Science cannot be over-emphasized. Which of the following statements does not convey the above idea?

(1) Effective understanding of the meaning and use of a language enhances learning in Social Science

(2) Language is of least significance in a fact-oriented subject like Social Science

(3) Only a language teacher can do justice to the teaching-learning process of Social Science

(4) Since language is important, a Social Science teacher should include comprehension and grammar questions in Social Science tests

Ans:

78. Which of the following statements is incorrect about Social Science?

(1) Social Science encompasses diverse concerns of society, including historical, geographical, economic and political dimensions

(2) Social Science creates and widens human values such as freedom, respect for diversity, etc.

(3) As Social Science deals with people, the nature of enquiry is not scientific

(4) Social Science lays the foundations for an analytical and creative mindset

Ans:

79. Which of the following is not a source material for writing oral history?

(1) The anecdotes of a person who participated in the 'Quit India Movement'

(2) A British soldier's oral account of the Sepoy Mutiny

(3) The memories of a person who migrated to Pakistan from India at the time of Partition

(4) A scholar talking about today's education system

Ans:

80. Which of the following statements about the title of NCERT History textbook, 'Our Pasts', as expressed by the authors, is not correct?

(1) It is about the pasts of neighbouring countries

(2) It does not talk about the times of kings and queens only

(3) It tries to bring out contribution of various groups or communities like farmers and artisans

(4) It emphasizes the notion that India does not have just 'one past' but 'many pasts'

Ans:

81. The following question is given under the heading 'Let's discuss' at the end of a chapter: 'Why do you think ordinary men and women did not generally keep records of what they did ?' What is the relevance of asking this question?

(1) Such questions encourage guesswork and so should not be given

(2) Ordinary men and women lead common lives. There is nothing great or of significance to write about them

(3) It is good to ignite a discussion and let students come out with their reasoning

(4) Questions which do not have fixed answers should not be given, as they will confuse the students

Ans:

82. Which type of questions will not develop critical thinking among students ?

(1) Closed-ended questions

(2) Open-ended questions

(3) Probing questions

(4) Divergent questions

Ans:

83. While discussing gender roles in the classroom, you would assert that

(1) there are different professions for men and women

(2) boys need to attend school as they are the future earning members of the family

(3) gender stereotypes in society need to be addressed meaningfully

(4) household work should not be seen as productive

Ans:

84. The approach of the 'Social and Political Life' textbooks of NCERT is to

(1) give the learner one correct answer for a question

(2) focus the attention of the learners on the factual content of lessons

(3) use definitions to sum up a concept

(4) use case studies and narratives to explain concepts

Ans:

85. Which of the following questions would help build the critical thinking skills of students ?

(1) 'All communicable diseases are water borne'. State whether true or false.

(2) Comment on the 'double burden of women's work'.

(3) Write two measures the government has adopted to control pollution.

(4) What is the government's role in Indian Health and Indian Education?

Ans:

86. You are teaching 'Unity in Diversity' to the students of Class-VIII. Which of the following activities would you do to make the students understand the concept effectively?

(1) Write an essay on the river disputes between States of India

(2) Prepare a model of the Hydro-electric project near the school

(3) Conduct' a test after the lesson is thoroughly taught

(4) Present a feature on the different dance forms of our country appreciating their underlying similarities and differences

Ans:

87. Diagnostic testing in Social Science will help a teacher understand

(1) the part of the topic the student has not memorised

(2) learning difficulties a student is facing in Social Science

(3) how revision work has helped her students

(4) how intelligent her students are

Ans:

88. Choose the most inappropriate statement regarding teaching of Social Science in middle school.

(1) Social Science should be taught as it helps to acquire an understanding of human relationships

(2) Social Science should be taught as it helps sensitize children regarding social reality

(3) Social Science should be taught because it helps students debate and reflect on social issues

(4) Social Science should be a part of the curriculum so that the learners 'know about the lives of kings and the battles they fought

Ans:

89. Doing activities with children will be effective only if

(1) the teacher does not know why she is doing it

(2) the teacher conducts them to complete her 'Lesson Plan'

(3) the teacher does them as a pretence to obey her principal's directions for activity-based learning

(4) she believes that activity-based education will help the child in understanding the concepts

Ans:

90. Which of the following should not be a part of the Social Science instructional process?

(1) Planning

(2) Dictation of facts

(3) Feedback mechanism

(4) Implementation

Ans:

PART IV

LANGUAGE I

ENGLISH

Directions: Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow (Q. No. 91 to 99) by selecting the most appropriate option.

Surviving a Snakebite

1 Annually, there are a million cases of snakebite in India and of these, close to 50,000 succumb to the bites.

2 When you look around the countryside, where most bites occur, and notice people's habits and lifestyles, these figures aren't surprising. People walk barefoot without a torch at night when they are most likely to step on a foraging venomous snake.

3 We encourage rodents by disposing waste food out in the open, or by storing foodgrains in the house. Attracted by the smell of rats, snakes enter houses and when one crawls over someone asleep on the floor and the person twitches or rolls over, it may bite in defence.

4 Once bitten, we don't rush to the hospital. Instead, we seek out the nearest conman, tie tourniquets, eat vile tasting herbal chutneys, apply poultices or spurious stones, cut/slice/suck the bitten spot, and other ghastly time-consuming deadly "remedies".

5 As Rom cattily remarks : "If the snake hasn't injected enough venom, even popping an aspirin can save your life." That's the key - snakes inject venom voluntarily and we have no way of knowing if it has injected venom, and if it is a lethal dose. The only first aid is to immobilise the bitten limb like you would a fracture, and get to a hospital for anti-venom serum without wasting time.

91. Of the people who are. bitten by snakes in India, the fatality rate is

(1) 5%

(2) 25%

(3) 50%

(4) 100%

Ans:

92. According to the author, people living in which parts are more prone to snake bites?

(1) Crowded cities

(2) The open

(3) Villages

(4) Forests

Ans: (3)

93. Storing foodgrains in the house is one of the causes for snake bites because

(1) foodgrains attract rats which in turn attract snakes

(2) snakes enter houses in search of stored foodgrains

(3) the smell of foodgrains brings both snakes and other animals into the house

(4) stored foodgrains create convenient hiding places for snakes within houses

Ans: (1)

94. '... it may bite in defence' (para-3). This observation implies that

(1) a snake is very good at defending itself

(2) a snake may bite a human being in order to defend its prey

(3) human beings are defenceless against snakes

(4) a snake bites a human only when it is threatened

Ans: (4)

95. What, according to the author, is the reason for the high fatality rate due to snakebites in India?

(1) Shortage of medical facilities

(2) Lack of scientific knowledge about snakebites

(3) Shortage of anti-venom serum

(4) Shortage of doctors

Ans: (2)

96. In the instance of a snakebite, what should we do immediately?

(1) Tie torniquets

(2) Eat herbal chutneys

(3) Immobilise the bitten part and get anti-venom serum

(4) Cut-slice-suck the bitten spot

Ans: (3)

97. Pick out a word from the passage which means 'to go around in search of food'. (Para 2)

(1) Foraging

(2) Countryside

(3) Venomous

(4) barefoot

Ans: (1)

98. "If the snake hasn't injected enough venom, even popping an aspirin can save your life." This sentence can be rewritten without changing the meaning as

(1) When a snake has not injected enough venom, life can be saved even by swallowing an aspirin.

(2) Life can be saved even by swallowing an aspirin, even though the snake hasn't injected enough venom.

(3) Even popping an aspirin can save your life, in spite of a snake not having injected enough venom.

(4) As long as you are popping an aspirin to save your life, the snake will not inject enough venom.

Ans: (1)

99. Pick out a word from the passage, that power to cause death'. means 'having the (Para 5)

(1) immobilise

(2) voluntarily

(3) lethal

(4) serum

Ans: (3)

Directions: Read the poem given below and answer the questions that follow (Q. No. 100 -105) by selecting the most appropriate option.

Common Cold

1 Go hang yourself, you old M.D.! You shall not sneer at me. Pick up your hat and stethoscope, Go wash your mouth with laundry soap; I contemplate a joy exquisite I'm not paying you for your visit. I did not call you to be told My malady is a common cold.

2 By pounding brow and swollen lip; By fever's hot and scaly grip; By those two red redundant eyes That weep like woeful April skies; By racking snuffle, snort, and sniff; By handkerchief after handkerchief; This cold you wave away as naught Is the damnedest cold man ever caught !

3 Bacilli swarm within my portals Such as were ne'er conceived by mortals, But bred by scientists wise and hoary In some Olympic laboratory; Bacteria as large as mice, With feet of fire and heads of ice
Who never interrupt for slumber Their stamping elephantine rumba.

100. What is the emotion that the poet displays in the first stanza ?

(1) Anger

(2) Joy

(3) Jealousy

(4) Sympathy

Ans: (3)

101. Why and at whom does the poet show his emotion?

(1) At an old man because he has sneered at the poet

(2) At a doctor for an incorrect diagnosis of his medical condition

(3) At a friend who is happy at the poet's plight

(4) At a doctor who has said the poet merely has a cold

Ans: (4)

102. The poet describes his eyes as 'two red redundant eyes' because .

(1) he cannot see properly due to the cold

(2) they show how furious the poet is

(3) they have been affected by an eye-disease

(4) in his medical condition the poet is imagining things

Ans: (1)

103. 'Bacteria as large as mice' is an instance of a/ an

(1) simile and a hyperbole

(2) metaphor

(3) personification

(4) alliteration

Ans:

104. 'Who never interrupt for slumber Their stamping elephantine rumba.' The meaning of these lines is that

(1) the bacteria are continuously stamping their elephant-like feet

(2) the cold-causing germs are causing much discomfort and pain to the poet without any break

(3) the bacilli are so active that they refuse to go to sleep

(4) the poet is not able to concentrate on his work due to the raging cold

Ans: (2)

105. The general tone of the poem can be described as

(1) satirical and harsh

(2) ironical and mocking

(3) whimsical and humorous

(4) sad and tragic

Ans: (1)

Directions: Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option.

106. The Constructivist Approach to learning means

(1) involving the students in a variety of activities to encourage them to learn new words and structures by accommodating them with those that they have already learnt through a process of discovery

(2) teaching rules of grammar and consolidating through rigorous practice

(3) helping learners acquire new vocabulary by studying literature intensively

(4) teaching new words and structures using a variety of audio-visual aids followed by practice through drill

Ans: (1)

107. What is the skill among the ones given below that cannot be tested in a formal written examination?

(1) Reading for information

(2) Meaning of words and phrases  

(3) Extensive reading for pleasure

(4) Analysing texts

Ans: (3)

108. Which of the following is suitable for making students responsible for their own learning?

(1) Discouraging students from making decisions about how they learn best

(2) Using technology to chat and network

(3) Encouraging students to ask more and more questions

(4) Giving a lot of homework, project work and assignments to improve language skills of students

Ans: (3)

109. Ania, while teaching paragraph construction, should draw attention to

(1) a large variety of ideas

(2) originality of ideas

(3) topic sentence, supporting details and connectors

(4) a range of vocabulary

Ans: (3)

110. Communicative Language Teaching is concerned with

(1) teaching of vocabulary and grammar  through rules of spelling and language

(2) teaching language to learners for written tests

(3) interpreting grammar rules to suit the audience

(4) enhancing receptive and productive skills such as speaking, listening, reading and writing

Ans: (4)

111. Formative Assessment is assessment

(1) of learning

(2) at learning

(3) in learning

(4) for learning

Ans: (1)

112. The term 'Comprehensive' in Continuous and Comprehensive Evaluation means

(1) scholastic development

(2) co-scholastic development

(3) academic skills

(4) scholastic and co-scholastic development

Ans:

113. A teacher designs a test to find out the cause of the poor grades of her learners through alan

(1) Diagnostic Test

(2) Proficiency Test

(3) Achievement Test

(4) Aptitude Test

Ans: (1)

114. An inclusive class is that in which

(1) differently abled learners study with normal students

(2) students from different nationalities study together

(3) students from different religions study together

(4) both boys and girls study together

Ans: (1)

115. 'Concrete Operational Stage' refers to those learners who are

(1) adolescents

(2) at middle level

(3) toddlers

(4) adults

Ans: (2)

116. When learners are engaged in a pair activity, taking on roles of a doctor and a patient, the activity is called

(1) Real Activity

(2) Declamation

(3) Simulation

(4) Exchanging notes

Ans: (3)

117. Essays or long writing tasks especially on a discursive issue should

(1) help students develop their literary skills

(2) help students with grammar

(3) help them to improve their handwriting

(4) help them discuss the different points of view and justify them with illustrative points

Ans: (4)

118. A teacher, Amrita, uses various tasks such as creating charts, graphs, drawing, gathering information and presenting them through pair or group work. This differentiated instruction

(1) helps learners with multiple intelligences to perform well and learn better    

(2) is a way of demonstrating her own knowledge

(3) only helps the bright learners

(4) is the best way to prepare students for an assessment

Ans:

119. Using a word bank and brainstorming helps to build

(1) Vocabulary

(2) Ideas

(3) Writing skills

(4) Reading comprehension

Ans: (1)

120. Gender stereotypes and bias among learners can be discouraged by

(1) enabling all learners to cook and sew irrespective of gender

(2) using textbooks which do perpetuate such beliefs

(3) creating an open and encouraging atmosphere in a mixed class

(4) pressuring girls to learn cooking

Ans: (1)

PART V

LANGUAGE II

ENGLISH

Directions: Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow (Q. No. 121 to 129) by selecting the most appropriate option.

1 If you are living in a house with a child on the cusp of becoming a teenager, congratulations. I'm not being sarcastic; you are about to embark on an amazing voyage. It may be a bumpy ride, but on the journey your child will grow, change and blossom into the adult she will one day become. If you are living with an older teenager, I won't try to sugar coat it : you will meet challenges. The raging hormones; the pressures of exams; the angst of relationships with friends and eventually lovers - modern teenagers are under so much pressure, it's no wonder they get moody !

2 Living with teens can be difficult because your child is in the process of great change. Gone is the baby who adored you without question; only shadows remain of the child who hung on your every word of wisdom. Your teenager is becoming a young adult, trying to find his way in the world. He is now programmed to reject your values and kick against your authority. Some days, when arguments are raging, music is blaring, dishes pile up in the sink and your daughter misses her curfew again, you may feel that you just can't bear it any longer.

3 But if you take a step backwards, breathing deeply for a moment, you will be able to see that most of the problems and irritations we have parenting teens are small ones. It's only because we are so close to them that they look so big. It's all about perspective. Your baby is metamorphosing into the adult he or she will be, and it's hard to watch. You want to save them from making your mistakes, and make
their lives easier. News flash: you can't. What you can - and must - do is always be there to listen. There will be times when you are the last person she wants to talk to, but you must make sure the opportunity is always there. Be available.

Source : Raising Teenagers

Lynn Huggins-Cooper (adapted)

121. According to the author, living with a teenager is like an 'amazing voyage' because

(1) during this voyage the parent will see the teenager blossoming into an adult

(2) the voyage will be very bumpy and dangerous

(3) both the teenager and the parent will get to see many amazing sights

(4) the vogage will take them to different wonderful places on the earth

Ans:

122. 'I won't try to sugar coat it' - By this what the author wants to convey is that

(1) she does not want to hide the fact that parenting a teenager is full of challenges

(2) parenting is very challenging and parents must be prepared for it in a gentle manner

(3) parenting teenagers is like taking an unpleasant cure for an ailment

(4) she does not want to flatter the parents into believing that they are capable of managing teenagers

Ans:

123. Modern teenagers easily become annoyed or unhappy for no reason because of

(1) the hormonal imbalance that is characteristic of this period of development

(2) the failed relationships with friends and lovers

(3) failing in examinations

(4) the enormous stress they experience at this age

Ans:

124. 'Only shadows remain of the child ...'. The word 'shadows' here refers to

(1) faint traces of the adoring child

(2) old memories of the teenager

(3) old memories of the parents

(4) the darker aspect of the growing teenager

Ans:

125. 'Kick against your authority' is a manifestation of a teenager's

(1) innate tendency to become physically violent

(2) natural rebellious tendency

(3) excessive sentimentality

(4) need for identification with family values

Ans:

126. 'He is now programmed to reject your values' implies that the teenager

(1) behaves in such a way because of biological factors

(2) derives much pleasure in going against the family

(3) is capable of programming his behaviour carefully

(4) rejects parents' values out of sheer spite

Ans:

127. The author says that parents cannot prevent their teenage children from making mistakes. What is his advice to the parents ?

(1) Be available for consultations and listen to the teenagers

(2) Don't try to save the teenagers or make their lives easier

(3) Be the last person to approach the teenagers with advice

(4) Do not watch the children growing up at this stage because it can be painful

Ans:

128. Pick out a word from the first paragraph of the above passage that means 'strong feelings of anxiety and unhappiness.'

(1) angst

(2) raging

(3) sarcastic

(4) cusp

Ans:

129. Living with teens can be difficult because your child is in the process of great change. The underlined part of this sentence is a/an

(1) adverb clause

(2) adjective clause

(3) prepositional phrase

(4) noun clause

Ans:

Directions: Read the poem given below and answer the questions (Q. No. 130 - 135) that follow by choosing the most appropriate option.

The Hand Holders:

A Tribute To Caregivers
There is no job more important than yours, no job anywhere else in the land. You are the keepers of the future; you hold the smallest of hands.

Into your care you are trusted to nurture and care for the young, and for all of your everyday heroics, your talents and skills go unsung.

You wipe tears from the eyes of the injured. You rock babies brand new in your arms. You encourage the shy and unsure child. You make sure they are safe from all harm.

You foster the bonds of friendships, letting no child go away mad. You respect and you honour their emotions. You give hugs to each child when they're sad.

You have more impact than does a professor, a child's mind is moulded by four; so whatever you lay on the table is whatever the child will explore.

Give each child the tools for adventure, let them be artists and writers and more; let them fly on the wind and dance on the stars and build castles of sand on the shore.

It is true that you don't make much money and you don't get -a whole lot of praise, but when one small child says "I love you", you're reminded of how this job pays.

Author unknown

130. The expression 'the smallest of hands' refers to 

(1) babies

(2) caregivers with small hands

(3) parents with small hands

(4) people with small hands

Ans:

131. Though caregivers look after the young they are

(1) never tired of their work

(2) not properly recognised

(3) not loved by the children under their care

(4) paid very well in return

Ans:

132. A caregiver has more influence on a child than a professor because

(1) the child generally prefers a caregiver to a professor

(2) the professor is not capable of providing love to a child

(3) the child spends the formative years with the caregiver

(4) the caregiver can teach better than a professor

Ans:

133. What is the most valuable gift that a caregiver gets ?

(1) Acknowledgement of the society

(2) Praise from the parents

(3) Money for her services

(4) Love from children

Ans:

134. 'You give hugs to each child when they're sad.' This act can be described as one of

(1) empathy

(2) encouragement

(3) recrimination

(4) reassurance

Ans:

135. 'Letting no child go away mad' - the meaning of this line is

(1) no child is allowed to be angry for long

(2) no child is permitted to go away from school without permission

(3) no child is allowed to become mad

(4) no caregiver is permitted to be mad with a child

Ans:

Directions : Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option.

136. Which among the following is a feature of a child-centred language classroom ?

(1) Teacher gives instructions and expects children to obey and be disciplined

(2) Children interact in the target language through tasks that require multiple intelligences

(3) Children work individually to prepare projects

(4) Teacher plans assessment every day

Ans:

137. Fluency in English can be developed through

(1) creating opportunities to use the target language for communication

(2) the teacher talking for most of the time

(3) the teacher being alert to spot the errors and correct them

(4) allowing students who are not confident to have the freedom to be quiet

Ans:

138. An effective lesson for teaching a language begins with

(1) listing the learning objectives of the lesson

(2) presenting the content of the lesson

(3) recapitulation and motivation through fun activity

(4) writing on the blackboard

Ans:

139. Some noise in the language class indicates

(1) indiscipline of learners

(2) teacher's lack of control over the class

(3) incompetence of the teacher

(4) constructive activities with learners engaged in language learning

Ans:

140. Enquiry-based learning

(1) does not place students in thought provoking situations

(2) encourages quiet learners

(3) does not nurture creative thinking in students

(4) allows learners to raise questions

Ans:

141. Effective learning takes place when students are

(1) passive

(2) interactive

(3) quiet

(4) good at preparing for examinations

Ans:

142. In large language classes, group work can be accomplished by

(1) asking 4 - 5 students to sit together on a narrow bench despite lack of space

(2) asking students to turn around for group work

(3) asking all students to stand in a circle

(4) asking half the class to go out to the playground

Ans:

143. A test to assess the potential of students for specific abilities and skills such as music, spatial ability or logical ability is called a/an

(1) Proficiency Test

(2) Aptitude Test

(3) Attitude Test

(4) Achievement Test

Ans:

144. A teacher can develop listening skills in English by

(1) speaking to them continuously both within the classroom and outside

(2) focusing only on listening skills without associating it with other language skills

(3) making the learners listen to everything they hear passively

(4) creating opportunities for them to listen to a variety of sources and people and engage in listening activities

Ans:

145. Which of the following is best suited for improving the speaking skills of learners ?

(1) Recitation of poetry

(2) Reading a prose and drama aloud

(3) Oral language drill

(4) Debates and group discussions followed by role play

Ans:

146. Which of the following will be most effective to remove conventional beliefs about gender roles?

(1) Showing a picture in which the mother is seen cooking and the father is seen reading a newspaper

(2) Teaching all the learners to sweep, wash and sew in the craft class without any gender discrimination

(3) Encouraging girls to develop interest in household chores from a young age

(4) "Telling the girls that talking freely is not a trait of good girls

Ans:

147. The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009 has 'overall development' as an aim. It means

(1) training the children for the development of the country

(2) nurturing both the scholastic and co-scholastic areas

(3) coaching all the children for academic excellence

(4) training the children for different careers

Ans:

148. A play can be best taught by

(1) making the students read it silently a number of times to understand the story

(2) encouraging the students to stage the play after working m groups to understand the plot, characters etc.

(3) asking a number of questions to test the comprehension of the students

(4) conducting a test with specific questions on the story and grammar items

Ans:

149. A class is reading a story based in a village. The teacher asks some students to mark the villages in an outline map of their locality. Some other students are asked to collect information about the different crops grown in these villages. Yet another group works on the nutritional value of the grains, fruits and vegetables grown in the locality. Later the students exchange their work and have a class
discussion, relating the information with the story. What is the underlying principle of this approach?

(1) Treating knowledge in specific segments based on geography, science, language, etc.

(2) Making connections across disciplines and bringing out the inter-relatedness of knowledge

(3) Teaching language through written assignments and projects

(4) Giving importance to the practical and scholastic aspects of literary pieces

Ans:

150. "Schools need to become centres that prepare children for life and ensure that all children, especially the differently abled, children from marginalised sections, and children in difficult circumstances get the maximum benefit of this critical area of education." - This- observation found in the National Curriculum Framework-2005 is related to

(1) Inclusive education

(2) Constructivist learning ,

(3) Gender equality

(4) Critical pedagogy

Ans: