CIVIL SERVICES TIMES APRIL 2011 MAGAZINE

CLICK HERE

Mendha-Lekha

Mendha-Lekha, a remote village in the Maoist-affected Gadchiroli district of eastern Maharashtra, has become the first in the country where Tribals have been given the right to sell bamboo harvested from the surrounding forests.

The Maharashtra government and the Union Environment Ministry recently gave the transit passes to the villagers thus enabling them to sell the bamboo from the region in the markets. The transit passes are required to take the bamboo from the village to the market, but the state forest department had refused the facility to the villagers for over one-and-a-half years.
It is to be noted that the British enacted the Indian Forest Act in 1927, which categorised bamboo as a tree, thereby preventing local forest dwellers from harvesting them without requisite permission from the forest department. The regime had been followed in independent India. Now bamboo will not be treated as a tree under Indian Forest Act anymore and will be considered a minor forest produce like tendu leaf.

India and British Virgin Islands

India has entered into a pact with the British Virgin Islands for exchange of information to check tax evasion and money laundering. The agreement is aimed at checking the growth of black money.This is the third Tax Information Exchange Agreement (TIEA) — as it is known in the parlance of the Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) — signed by India. India had earlier signed the TIEA with Bermuda and Isle of Man. Under the agreement with British Virgin Islands there is a specific provision for providing banking and ownership information and the requesting state has to provide some minimum details about the information requested. However, information is to be treated as secret and can be disclosed to only specified person or authorities, which are tax authorities or the authorities concerned with the determination of a tax appeal. The agreement also allows for exchange of past information in criminal tax matters.

India inks pact with Bahamas for tax information exchange:

India has entered into a pact with Bahamas for exchange of information to check tax evasion and money laundering. This is the fourth Tax Information Exchange Agreement (TIEA) signed by India. Under the agreement with Bahamas, there is a specific provision for providing banking and ownership information and the requesting state has to provide some minimum details about the information requested.

Understanding the Tax Information Exchange Agreements (TIEAs):

The purpose of TIEA’s is to promote international co-operation in tax matters through exchange of information.  It was developed by the OECD Global Forum Working Group on Effective Exchange of Information. The Working Group consisted of representatives from OECD Member countries as well as delegates from Aruba, Bermuda, Bahrain, Cayman Islands, Cyprus, Isle of Man, Malta, Mauritius, the Netherlands Antilles, the Seychelles and San Marino. The Agreement grew out of the work undertaken by the OECD to address harmful tax practices. The lack of effective exchange of information is one of the key criteria in determining harmful tax practices. The mandate of the Working Group was to develop a legal instrument that could be used to establish effective exchange of information. The Agreement represents the standard of effective exchange of information for the purposes of the OECD’s initiative on harmful tax practices.

About British Virgin Islands: 

 The Virgin Islands, often called the British Virgin Islands (BVI), is a British overseas territory, located in the Caribbean to the east of Puerto Rico. The islands make up part of the Virgin Islands archipelago, the remaining islands constituting the U.S. Virgin Islands. The British Virgin Islands consist of the main islands of Tortola, Virgin Gorda, Anegada and Jost Van Dyke. The capital of British Virgin Islands is Road Town and is situated on Tortola, the largest island. The head of the state is Queen Elizabeth II and the Governor is William Boyd McCleary.

Visveshvaraya Grameena Bank (VGB) Recruitment

Visveshvaraya Grameena Bank (VGB)
(Sponsored by Vijaya Bank)
Head Office: Post Box No 41, Vidyanagar, Mandya – 571401, Karnataka

sarkari-naukri.blogspot.co

Online applications are invited from Indian citizens, for the following  posts :

• Officer Junior Manager Scale-I : 07 posts, Pay Scale : Rs.14500–25700/-
• Office Assistants (Multipurpose) : 15 posts, Pay Scale : Rs.7200–19300/-

Application Fee  : Rs.350/-  (Rs.50/- for SC/ST/PWD/EXS) to be deposited in any branch of Vijaya Bank.

How to Apply : Candidates are required to apply Online only  through Visveshvaraya Grameena Bank, website up to 30/08/2011.

Please visit http://www.vgbank.in/VG%20Bank/recrutment.htm  for details and Challan   and Online application form.

Indian Institute of Management (IIM), Ahmedabad

Indian Institute of Management (IIM), Ahmedabad


One Year Post-Graduate Programme in Management for Executives (PGPX) Admissions 2011-2012


Indian Institute of Management (IIM), Ahmedabad, has invited applications for admission to One Year Post-Graduate Programme in Management for Executives (PGPX) of Academic Year 2011-12.

Candidates must have a Bachelor's Degree or its equivalent to be considered for admission. They must be 27 years or more by the start of the programme (born on or before March 31, 1985).

The application form is available online on the website (www.iimahd.ernet.in).
The deadline for submitting applications is August 10, 2011.

The admission process will be completed and applicants informed by October 31, 2011.

The programme begins on April 09, 2012.
For details, logon to the link: http://www.iimahd.ernet.in/users/pgpx/files/PGPX_VII.pdf

National Law University, Delhi

National Law University, Delhi
Sector - 14, Dwarka, New Delhi - 110 078
Tel: 011-28034993, 28034257
Website: http://www.nludelhi.ac.in

P.G. Diploma in Judging and Court Management Admissions 2011-2012

Applications are invited for admission to P. G. Diploma in Judging & Court Management (One Year)

Eligibility
Law Graduates (3 years course / 5 years integrated course) with minimum of 50% marks.

Age Limit: 30 years as on 1st September, 2011 (35 years in case of SC/ST candidates).

How To Apply
Interested candidates may apply for admission on the prescribed format of application available on the University website: http://nludelhi.ac.in along with a Demand Draft of Rs.1000/- (Rupees One Thousand Only) for General Candidates and Rs.500/- (Rupees Five Hundred Only) in case of SC and ST Candidates, drawn in favour of "The Registrar, NATIONAL LAW UNIVERSITY, DELHI", payable at Delhi along with copies of requisite Caste

Last date for receipt of form: 31 August 2011

Contact Details:
National Law University, Delhi
Sector - 14, Dwarka, New Delhi - 110 078
Tel: 011-28034993, 28034257
Website: http://www.nludelhi.ac.in

Indian Plywood Industries Research and Training Institute

Indian Plywood Industries Research and Training Institute
Post Bag No.2273, Tumkur Road, Yeshwanthpur PO, Bangalore - 560 022
Phone: 91-80-28394231/32/33; Fax: 91-80-28396361
Website: www.ipirti.gov.in


PG Diploma course in Wood and Panel Products Technology Admissions 2011-2012
Applications are invited for admission to Post Graduate Diploma course in Wood and Panel Products Technology

Eligibility:Graduate in Science / Engineering from any recognized university

Age limit: 28 years as on 01.11.2011. Relaxable for SC / ST / OBC / PH as per GoI Rules. Age limit is also relaxable for candidates sponsored by industries.

How To Apply:
Applications form can be obtained by applying on plain paper, enclosing a DD of Rs.250/- (non - refundable) drawn in favour of Director, IPIRTI, payable at Bangalore.

Last date for receipt of form: 15 September 2011


Contact Details:
Indian Plywood Industries Research and Training Institute
Post Bag No.2273, Tumkur Road, Yeshwanthpur PO, Bangalore - 560 022
Phone: 91-80-28394231/32/33; Fax: 91-80-28396361
Website: www.ipirti.gov.in

BANK EXAMS GENERAL AWARENESS PRACTICE QUESTIONS

1. Among the following statements, which one is not a correct statement?
1) RBI circulates money with the permission of the state governments
2) RBI authorized the banks to open branches in North Eastern part of India with out its prior permission
3) RBI orders that 25 % of the new branches must be open in rural areas
4) RBI is having the sole authority to control bank operations in Co-operative banks
5) RBI is strict in the content of Bank Advertisements

2. As per RBI report banks disposed Rs.4.26 Lakh crores to farm sector, against the target of ........... lakh crore during 2010-2011?
1) 3.50
2) 5.23
3) 9.1
4) 6.5
5) 7.1

3. Banker's Committee on Rural Housing headed by ...........?
1) M.D.Malya
2) R.Sridhar
3) M.V.Nair
4) Alok Kumar Misra
5) Basant Seth

4. Monthly (some times daily) the amount deposited in the account. In the maturity period, the large amount got by the customer. The account is called ...........?
1) Savings
2) Fixed
3) Recurring
4) Corporate
5) Current

5. On 1 June 2011, Janani-Shishu Suraksha Karyakram ( JSSK) launched by the Central Government. Pick the correct option?
1) This Program started under the plank of Janani Suraksha Yojana ( JSY)
2) JSY centrally sponsored scheme aimed at reducing maternal and infant mortality rates and increasing institutional deliveries in below poverty line (BPL) families.
3) JSSK provides Free and Cashless Services to pregnant women in both Rural and Urban areas
4) JSY comes under the overall umbrella of National Rural Health Mission ( NHM) 2005 covers all pregnant women belonging to households below the poverty line, above 19 years of age and up to two live births.
5) All of above

6. The Union government agreed for the payment security mechanism for Solar power projects under JNNSM. It stands for ...........
1) Jawahar Lal Nehru National Solar Mean
2) Jawahar Lal Nehru National Solar Module
3) Jatiya Nehru National Sign Mission
4) Jawahar Nehru National Sign Mission
5) Jawahar Lal Nehru National Solar Mission

7. ........... became the first state to sign MOU with the World Bank for securing carbon credits for its 'Clean Development Mechanism' Project?
1) Andhra Pradesh
2) Himachal Pradesh
3) Haryana
4) Tamilnadu
5) Bihar

8. Committee/ Commission list is given. Pick the wrong one?
1) High Powered Task Force for the revamp of Defense Management-Naresh Chandra
2) Inter-ministerial task force to evolve a suitable mechanism for direct subsidies- Nandan Nilekani
3) Committee on Small Savings Fund- Usha Thorat
4) Long-term policy for the Indian Pharmaceutical Sector-Viswa Mohan Katoch
5) Trade and Economic Relations Committee (TERC) headed by Prime Minister of India

9. On 21 July 2011, Prahar missile test fired successfully from the Integrated Test Range (ITR) in Balasore in Odisha. It is a ........... missile?
1) Surface to Air
2) Air to Surface
3) Water to Water
4) Air to Air
5) Surface to Surface

10. Indo-foreign relations are given. Pick up wrong one?
1) India agrees with Nepal to export Election management
2) India agrees with Netherlands on Corporate Governance and Corporate Social Responsibility
3) Annual Indo 'China border trade restarted in Uttarakhand
4) India lifted anti-dumping duty on Gas from China and Japan
5) UK banned import of Indian fish

11. RBI has no control over ...........?
1) Public Sector Banks
2) Private Sector Banks
3) Self-Help Groups
4) Regional Rural Banks
5) Foreign Banks

12. India paid Rs. 700 cr as penalty to World Bank and other international agencies due to ...........
1) World bank hates India
2) prepayment of loans
3) delay in the payment of debts
4) delay in the execution of projects
5) asked the world bank to top up loans

13. Rajiv Awas Yojana phase I launched with Financial Assistance. It provides slum free houses to slum dwellers approximately in ........... cities across the country by the end of 12th five year plan
1) 100
2) 500
3) 250
4) 800
5) 1000

14. Recession means
1) where the sold goods are re purchased due to consumer demand
2) where the unsold goods are sold away due to more demand
3) where the unsold goods are accumulated due to lack of consumer demand
4) where the sold goods are banned not to sell
5) None

15. In the Newspapers we read the soft loans granted by World Bank to India. Few state governments and Central government give the soft loans to beneficiaries also. What is meant by soft loan?
1) Short period and more rate of Interest
2) Long Period and more rate of interest
3) Long period, more rate of Interest with grace periods
4) Long period, less rate of Interest with grace periods
5) Long period, more rate of Interest with no grace periods

16. The Union Government decisions are taken. Pick the correct one?
1) Rastriya Swasthya Bima Yozana now covers Beedi workers also
2) M.V.AMET Majesty is India's first cruise Liner
3) Free monthly season tickets for railway travel extended to Girls up to Graduation level
4) Union Government set a target of training 500 million skilled workers by 2022
5) All of above

17. ........... hosts UN convention on Biodiversity on October 1-19, 2012?
1) Geneva
2) Toranto
3) Hyderabad
4) Rome
5) Canberra

18. International Physics Olympiad held 10-18 July 2011 in ...........?
1) Rome
2) Geneva
3) New York
4) Bangkok
5) New Delhi

19. Indian Cosmetic doyenne ........... has been presented with a shield of Honour by the Oxford University?
1) Meera Kumari
2) Angela Perutiza
3) Anu Sisters
4) Shahnaz Husain
5) Madam Triloka rani

20. Pick the wrong abbreviation?
1) Line Commercial Vehicle - LCV
2) Bilateral Aviation Safety Agreement - BASA
3) Commission for Agricultural Costs & Prices - CACP
4) Self Help Group - SHG
5) Liquidity Adjustment Facility - LAF

21. Which among the following one is not the part of Priority Sector Lending as per the order of RBI on 5 May 2011?
1) Agriculture
2) Self help Groups
3) Non-banking Finance companies
4) Micro finance
5) Housing Sector

22. Which bank is not a Public Sector Bank?
1) Indian Overseas Bank
2) Punjab National Bank
3) Karur Vysya Bank
4) UCO Bank
5) Vijaya Bank

23. Revision of Scheme of Post-Metric Scholarships to students belonging to Scheduled Tribes announced. The revision of income-ceiling increased from Rs.1.45 lakh to Rs ........... lakh per annum
1) 4
2) 5
3) 2
4) 3
5) 3.5

24. Revision of amount of construction of Individual Household Latrine (IHHL) from Rs.2200 ( rural area) , Rs.2700 ( Urban) to ...........?
1) 2500, 3000
1) 2800, 3100
3) 3200, 3700
4) 4000, 4100
5) None

25. National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM) launched by Ministry Rural Development to bring the poorest of the poor above the poverty line by ensuring viable livelihood opportunities. The scheme launched in
Banswara, ........... It is the redesigned scheme of Swarnjayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojana (SGSY)
1) Haryana
2 ) Uttarpradesh
3) Andhra Pradesh
4) Rajastan
5) Assam

26. Options relating to states are given. Pick the wrong one?
1) World's largest Solar project to come up in Dhule, Maharashtra (150 MW)
2) Floating Post Office likely to be set up in Dal Lake in Jammu
3) A street in Bangladesh named after Indira Gandhi, as she had the credit to get independence to their country
4) Andhra Pradesh is the first state with Israel to collaborate
5) None

27. NATGRID announced to share the information among the law enforcement agencies to mitigate the terrorism. Expand NATGRID?
1) National Intelligence Grid Department
2) National Guard Intelligence Grid
3) Ninth Intelligence Grid
4) National Intelligence Grid
5) None

28. The International Events are given. Pick the wrong one?
1) The first Arab woman is Suzzane Al Houby to scale Mount Everest
2) Japan reviews its total energy policy
3) Chashma nuclear reactor of China imported to Pakistan
4) Nepal started to bring the constitutional reforms
5) None

29 The prime lending agency in the world to help the developing countries?
1) IMF
2) IFC
3) AFD
4) USA
5) IDA

30. The Abbreviation list given. Pick the wrong one?
1) OBE-Order of the British Empire
2) PSLV- Polar Satellite Launching Vehicle
3) CWD- Cash on Withdrawal
4) POK-Pakistan Occupied Kashmir
5) UPSC-Union People Service Commission

31. New appointments are given. Pick the wrong one?
1) New Home Secretary of India-Rajkumar Singh
2) Chief of the Integrated Defence Staff- Shekar sinha
3) Ranjan Mathai is the new Foreign Secretary
4) Nirupama Rao is the new ambassador of India in Russia
5) Chairman and MD of Central Bank of India-M.V.Tanksale

32. On whose birth day India celebrates Doctor day on 1 July every year?
1) Dr. Venugopal
2) Dr. Jagadish Chandra Bose
3) Dr. Nayudamma
4) Dr. Kedia Dinkar
5) Dr. B.C.Roy

33. 2000th ICC test held between India and ...........?
1) Australia
2) England
3) West Indies
4) Pakistan
5) Zimbabwe

34. Sports events are given. Pick wrong one?
1) National Institute of Sports (NIS) Patiala
divides from Sports Authority of India (SAI).
2) Japan lifted the women's football World Cup by defeating USA in a dramatic final.
3) India won the Cricket Test series against West Indies with 1-0
4) Fernando Alonso of Portugal won the British Grand Prix
5) 2018 Ryder cup host by France

ANSWERS:
1)1 2)1 3)2 4)3 5)5 6)5 7)2 8)3 9)5 10)4
11)3 12)4 13)3 14)3 15)4 16)5 17)3 18)4
19)4 20)1 21)3 22)3 23)3 24)3 25)4 26)5
27)4 28)5 29)5 30)5 31)4 32)5 33)2 34)4

BANK OF INDIA SPECIALIST RECRUITMENT

Bank of India (BoI) has announced to fill 295 Specialist Officers posts.

Post – Vacancies - Payscale :  
Marketing Executive (scale I) – 14 posts – Rs.14500 /-/ 25700
Marketing Executive (scale II) – 278 posts - Rs.19400 /-/ 28100
Law Officer – 03 posts - Rs.14500 /-/25700

Dates :Online application process – 2.08.2011 to 16.08.2011
Written Exam – 25.09.2011

Eligibility: Those interested to apply for these posts in Bank of India,

Post	Age (as on 31.07.2011)	Education details (31.07.2011)
Marketing Executive (scale I)	21 - 30yrs	MBA/ PGDM in Marketing with 50% marks from a recog. univ/ college
Marketing Executive (scale II)	21 - 30yrs	MBA/ PGDM in Marketing with 60% marks from a recog. univ/ college
Law Officer	21 - 30yrs	LLB with 50% (LLB level, full time)

* can apply for any 1 post only

Selection process comprises of Written test & Interview.While there are no negative marks for wrong answers – of the total 200 marks allotted for objective type test, candidates have to secure minimum 40% in each paper & 50% aggregate to be considered for Interview.
  
Application fee of Rs.400 [no fee for SC/ST] should be paid at any Bank of India branches before Aug 16.Following this, proceed to apply online at bankofindia.co.in by mentioning the necessary info & uploading your photo,signature etc.Preserve a  printout of application for future reference.
     Apply for Bank of India recruitment 2011 can download the complete notification  Click here

Catholic Syrian Bank Clerks Recruitment

Catholic Syrian Bank (CSB) invites online applications from eligible candidates for the recruitment of Clerks. Candidates are requested to apply online through CSB Bank official website. Please note that Last date of Submission of online application is 16.08.2011.

Catholic Syrian Bank – CSB Official Website: http://www.csb.co.in/default.asp

CSB Bank Recruitment 2011 in Clerical Cadre – 100 Clerks

Post	Vacancies	Age Limit	Qualification	Exam Date
CSB Clerks	100	28 Years	Graduation in any discipline	25.09.2011

Online Submission of Application: from 03-Aug-2011 to 16-Aug-2011

Selection Procedure: Written test/skill test & Personal interview.

Application Fee: for General Category – Rs.100/- (for SC/ST – NIL)

How to Apply: All eligible candidates should apply online through the Catholic Syrian Bank official website www.csb.co.in in prescribed format from 03.08.2011 to 16.08.2011. No other means/ mode of application will be accepted.

Click here to Apply Online for Catholic Syrian Bank (CSB) Clerks 

Click here to Download CSB – Application Fee payment Challan

For more details like Eligibility Criteria, Educational Qualifications, Application Fee, Mode of Payment, Selections Process, How to Apply etc. refer to detailed Notification.

Click here for CSB Bnak Clerks Recruitment 2011 Notification

Catholic Syrian Bank JMO Recruitment

Catholic Syrian Bank (CSB) invites online applications from eligible Indian citizens for the recruitment of Junior Management Officer (JMO). Candidates are requested to apply online through CSB Bank official website. Please note that Last date of Submission of online application is 16.08.2011.

Catholic Syrian Bank – CSB Official Website: http://www.csb.co.in/default.asp

CSB Bank Recruitment 2011 for Junior Management Officer – 230 JMO Posts

Post	Vacancies	Age Limit	Exam Date
Junior Management Officer (JMO)	230	28 Years	25.09.2011

Online Submission of Application: from 03-Aug-2011 to 16-Aug-2011

Qualifications: Graduates in Science & Engineering – 60% & Graduates in Arts, Commerce & others – 55%

Selection Procedure: Written test/skill test & Personal interview.

Application Fee: for General Category – Rs.200/- (for SC/ST – Rs.50/-)

How to Apply: All eligible candidates should apply online through the Catholic Syrian Bank official website www.csb.co.in in prescribed format from 03.08.2011 to 16.08.2011. No other means/ mode of application will be accepted.

Click here to Apply Online for CSB Junior Management Officers (JMO)

Click here to Download CSB – Application Fee payment Challan

For more details like Eligibility Criteria, Educational Qualifications, Application Fee, Mode of Payment, Selections Process, How to Apply etc. refer to CSB JMO Officers detailed Notification.

Click here for CSB JMO – Junior Management Officer Recruitment Notification

Indian Economic Service / Indian Statistical Service General Studies Question Paper 2010

General Studies

Time Allowed: Three Hours
Maximum Marks : 100

Instructions

Candidates should be attempt ALL Questions, unless otherwise directed. The number of Marks Carried by each question is indicated for the question.
Answers must be written in English.
Important Notes: The question paper contains an outline map of india. This is to be detached carefully from the question paper and attached firmly to the answer book
while attempting question No. 4.
Do not write your roll number or name on the map.

1. Answer any Five of the following, in about 75 words each :-   5 x 5 = 25

(a) Discuss the role of Carbon Credit as a means of awareness in pollution control.
(b) Distinguish between hydrological characteristics of north Indian and south Indian rivers.
(c) Assess the importance of power in the industrial development of india.
(d) Explain how the president of india is an integral part of Parliament.
(e) Discuss the concept of Dyarchy introduced by the Government of india Act of 1919.
(f) Write a critical note on ‘food security’ issue debated in Indian parliament.

2. Write briefly on any Five of the following (In about 30 Words each) : -  2 x 5 = 10
(a) What is invisible web ?
(b) What is genomics ?
(c) What are the uses of grapheme ?
(d) What are the uses of phytoremediation ?
(e) Explain the role of UNIDO.
(f) Discuss Geographic Information System.

3.  Write on any Five of the following ( In about 30 words each) :-  2 x 5 = 10
(a) Allauddin Khalji’s market reforms.
(b) Kandukuri Veeresalingam Pantulu.
(c) INA.
(d) Kailashnath temple at Ellora
(e) Poona Pact of 1932.
(f) Charter Act of 1813.

4. Show any Five of the following places on the outline Map of india that is attached to your question paper.
(The map must then be detached carefully from the question paper and attached to your answer book firmly.) On your answer book, write about the significance of the five places marked by you, in about 20 words each: -  (1+1) x 5 = 10
(a) Dehradun
(b) Digboi
(c) Pachmarhi
(d) Nagarjunasagar
(e) Paradip
(f) Vadodara.

5. Explain any Five of the following terms, in about 30 words each: -  2 x 5 = 10
(a) Effect of El Nino on Indian Climate.
(b) Open Source.
(c) Natural rubber producing areas of india.
(d) Formation of Oxbow lakes.
(e) Radioactive pollution.
(f) Scientometrics.

6. Write note on any Eight of the following, in about 35 words each :-  2½  x 8 = 20
(a) Privileges enjoyed by the members of Indian Parliament individually.
(b) Constitutional limitations on the powers of Rajya Sabha.
(c) Effects of the dissolution of Lok Sabha.
(d) Article 360.
(e) Social Audit.
(f) Censure Motion.
(g) Write of Prohibition.
(h) Paid News.
(i) ‘Honours Killings’
(j) Hypertext

7. Write about the Following in not more than a Sentence or two each :- 1 x 10 = 10
(a) Lagoon
(b) Xerophytes
(c) Digital Signature
(d) Coral reefs
(e) ‘The  Finkler Question’
(f) ‘Before Memory Fades’
(g) Inter Tropical Front
(h) Suspensive Veto Power
(i) Erosion
(j) Equinox

8. Why were the following in the news recently ? (Answer to each should be in a sentence or two only) :- 1 x 5 = 5
a) ONV Kurup
b) Dileep Padgaonkar
c) Krishna Poonia
d) Liu Xiaobo
e) D. Udai Kumar

Indian Economic Service / Indian Statistical Service General English Question Paper 2010

General English

Time Allowed: Three Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

Instructions

Candidates should attempt ALL questions unless otherwise directed.
The number of marks carried by each question is indicated at the end of the question.
Answers must be written only in English.
Candidates are requested to write clear, legible and concise answers and to adhere to word limits whenever indicated. Irrelevance, diffuseness and disorganization will be penalized. Failure to adhere to word limit will also be penalized.
précis question must be attempted only on the special précis sheet provided, which should  thereafter be fastened securely inside the answer book.

1. Write an essay on any one of the following topics in about 1000 – 1200 words.   40
(a) Causes and remedies for the Maoist- insurgency in the North – Eastern states.
(b) India’s Major Problem is not unemployment, rather ‘Unemployable educated’.
(c) Consequences of Global warming – Myth and reality.
(d) Where injustice Prevails, it is crime to be a silent spectator.

2. Write a précis of the following passage in about one-third of the original length using your own words as for as possible.
Please state the number of words used in your précis and suggest a suitable title.
(Note: the précis must be written only on the special sheet provided for this purpose – One word in each blocks – and the sheet should be fastened securely inside the answer book.)    20

“No matter how eloquently a dog may bark, he cannot tell you that his parents were poor but honest,” Said Bertrand Russell once. What the famous Philosopher asserted in effect is that language is the exclusive property of the human species. The idea of talking animals is as old and as
Wide spread among human societies as language itself. All cultures have legends in which some animal plays a speaking role.  All over West Africa, Children listen to folk tales in which a “spider man “is the hero. “Coyote” is a favourite figure in many Native American tales, and many an animal takes the stage in Aesop’s famous fables. The fictional Doctor Doolittle’s forte was communicating with all manner of animals, from giant snails to tiny sparrows.

If language is viewed only as a system of communication, than many species communicate.  Humans also use systems other than language to relate to each other and to send and receive “massage” like so called “body language.” The question is whether the communication system used by other species are at all like human linguistic knowledge, which is acquired by children with no external instruction, and which is used creatively rather than in response to internal or external stimuli.

Most humans who acquire language use speech sound to express meanings, but such sound are not a necessary aspect of language, as evidence by the sign languages. The use of speech sound is therefore not a basic part of what we have been calling language. The chirping of birds, the  squeaking of dolphins, and the dancing of bees may potentially represent systems similar to human languages. If animal communication systems are not like human languages, it will not be due to a lack of speech.

Conversely, when animals vocally imitate human utterances, it does not mean they possess language. Language is system that relates sounds or gestures to meanings. Talking birds such as parrots and mynah birds are capable of faithfully reproducing words and pharses of human languages that they have heard, but their utterances carry no meaning. They are speaking neither English nor their own language when they sound like us.

Talking birds do not dissect the sound of their imitations into discrete units. Polly and Molly do not rhyme for a parrot. They are as different as hello and goodbye. One property of all human languages is the discreteness of the speech of gestural units, which are ordered and recordered, combined and split apart. Generally, a parrot says what it is taught, or what it hears, and no more. If Polly learns “ Polly wants a cracker” and “ Polly wants a chocolate and also learn to imitiate the single words “ Cake” and “bun” she will not spontaneously produce, as children do,  “Polly wants a cake” or “polly wants a bun” or “Polly wants a cake and a bun.” If she learns Cat and Cats, and dog and dogs, and then learns the word parrot, she will be unable to form the plural parrots as children do by the age of three; nor can a parrot form an unlimited set of utterances from a finite set of units, nor understand utterances never heard before. Therefore, the ability to produce sounds similar to those used in human language, even if meanings are realated to these sounds, cannot be equated with the ability to acquire the complex grammer of human language.

3. Write a single  paragraph of about 200 words on any one of the following:   10
(a) Struggle with your mind is the greatest struggle.
(b) Sweet are the uses of adversity.
(c) Time heals even the deepest wound.
(d) Fortune Favours only the brave.

4. Use each of the following words to make sentences that brings out the meaning of each clearly. Do not change the form of the words. No marks will be given for vague or ambiguous sentences :    2x5 = 10
(a) Meltdown
(b) Imbroglio
(c) Cerebral
(d) Convergance
(e) Obligation

5. Rewrite each of the following sentences as directed without changing the meaning of each :  2x5 = 10
(a) The judgement was heard with rapt attention.
(Change the voice of the verb)

(b) The Kashmir problem is too complex to allow any amicable solution,
(Rewrite using “so….that”)
(c) The government banned all processions. Yet, the defiant workers took out a long procession.
(Combine the sentences to form ‘One simple sentence)
(d) The high command ousted the rebels. They formed a new party, They urged their friends also to resign from the old party.
(Combine the sentences to form one complex sentence)
6. Correct the following sentences without changing their meaning. Please do not make unnecessary change in the original sentence in each case.
In case you think there is no error, then write down the sentence as it is ; 1x10 = 10
(a) The women told me that there was no place in the compartment.
(b) Many computer professionals wear half pants these days.
(c) Mr. Amitabh Bachan is a tall gentleman.
(d) During the vacation, try to spend some time with your family members.
(e) The front side of the house looks impressive.
(f) Whenever Mary visits the Marina, she takes a bath in the sea.
(g) The new servant takes troubles to do his work.
(h) The class IV employees took insult at being called peons.
(i) As we climbed the mountain, we enjoyed the sceneries around.
(j) The students of third standard are learning a new poetry.

National Disaster Management Authority Recruitment

The National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) is the Apex Body for Disaster Management in India and is headed by the Prime Minister of India. It invites application from eligible candidates for recruitment across various posts.
Name of the Post & Number of Vacancies

• Advisor (Operations and Communications): 1 post
• Joint Adviser (Rehabilitation and Recovery): 1 post
• Senior Research Officers: 3 post
• Assistant Advisors (Operations): 1 post
• Duty Officer (Operations Centre): 2 posts
• Cashier: 1 post
• Hindi Typist: 1 post
• Storekeeper: 1 post

Important Dates
Last date for receipt of application: 25 August 2011
How to Apply
Application in the prescribed format with copies of the requisite documents duly enclosed should be sent to the following address
Under Secretary (Admn.),
National Disaster Management Authority,
A-1, Safdarjung Enclave,
New Delhi- 110 029
For details on eligibility criteria, qualification, experience, and age limit, please CLICK HERE

Ministry of Defence Recruitment of Lower Division Clerk and Storekeeper

Ministry of Defence, Talegaon Dabhade, invites application from eligible candidates for recruitment to the post of Lower Division Clerks and Storekeeper.

Name of the Post

• Lower Division Clerk: 3 vacancies
• Storekeeper: 3 vacancies

Important Dates

• Opening date for sending application: 30 July 2011
• Last date for receipt of application: 31 August 2011

Eligibility Criteria
Educational Qualification
Lower Division Clerks:

• Matriculation or equivalent
• Minimum typing speed of 30 words per minute in English

Storekeeper: The candidate should have passed High School Secondary Certificate (HSSC) 10+2
Age Limit: 18 years and 25 years as on 31 August 2011. Relaxation in age as per rules laid by Government of India.
Pay Scale: Pay Band Rs 5200- 20,200 + Grade Pay Rs 1900
Selection Procedure: The candidates who fulfil the eligibility criteria will have to go through the written test and interview.
How to Apply
Application in the prescribed format should be sent to the following address "Commandant, Ordinance Depot, Talegaon Dabhade, Pune- 410 506"
For more details, please refer Employment Newspaper dates 30 July 2011

BHEL ET Engineer Trainee Recruitment 2011,BHEL ST Supervisor Trainee Recruitment 2011

Bharat Heavy Electrical Limited BHEL Invites applications for the Recruitment of Engineer Trainees (ET),Supervisor Trainee (ST) Engineering & Finance Posts.

Name of the Posts : Engineer Trainees (ET) /Supervisor Trainee (ST)

No.of Vacancies :

Engineer Trainees : 1000 Posts (700-Mechanical,200-Electrical,100-Electronics)

Supervisor Trainees : 1000 Posts (740-Mechanical,160-Electrical,60-Electronics,40-Civil)

Starting Date of Online Submission of Applications : 01-08-2011

Closing Date of Online Submission of Applications : 20-08-2011

Last Date for receipt of Acknowledgement Slips :  24-08-2011

Tentative Date of Written Examination :

Engineer Trainees ET : 18-09-2011  , Supervisor Trainee ST : 25-09-2011

Eligibility Criteria :

Engineer Trainees :

Educational Qualifications :

Full Time B.E/B.Tech in Mechanical,Electrical,Electronics with Minimum 65% aggregate Marks from a Recognized University.

Upper Age Limit : 27 years  (Post Graduates 29 years)

Supervisor Trainee Engineering :
Educational Qualifications :
Full Time Diploma in Engineering in Mechanical,Electrical,Electronics,Civil with Minimum 65% aggregate Marks (60% for SC/ST Candidates) from a Recognized University.
Upper Age Limit : 27 years
Supervisor Trainee Finance :
Educational Qualifications :
Full Time Bachelor’s Degree in Commerce with Minimum 70% aggregate Marks (60% for SC/ST Candidates) from a Recognized University.
Upper Age Limit : 27 years
Exam Pattern & Selection Procedure : Selection is Based on the Written Test & Personal Interview.
Application Fee : Rs.500/- for Engineer Trainees  Rs.300/- Supervisor Trainees
All Eligible Candidates need to Apply Online @ http://careers.bhel.in/
For Further Details Regarding the How to Apply,How to Pay Application Fee,Eligibility Criteria,Exam Pattern,Selection Procedure,Age Limits,Pay Scales,Online Application Form refer below Recruitment Notification Carefully before applying.
http://careers.bhel.in/etrlive/static/et_advt_eng.pdf

APTET 2011 Paper-1 Answer Keys

Andhra Pradesh Teachers Eligibility Test APTET 2011 Answer Keys of Paper-1 

Exam Held on 31-07-201 

APTET 2011 Paper-1 Answer Key (Series-A):

1)2 2)4 3)1 4)2 5)3 6)1 7)3 8)2 9)4 10)4 11)1 12)2 13)2 14)2 15)1 16)4 17)4 18)3 19)2 20)1 21)3 22)3 23)3 24)3 25)3 26)3 27)4 28)4 29)3 30)4 31)1 32)3 33)3 34)2 35)2 36)2 37)2 38)1 39)4 40)1 41)4 42)3 43)3 44)4 45)1 46)3 47)3 48)2 49)2 50)4 51)1 52)1 53)3 54)3 55)1 56)2 57)3 58)2 59)2 60)4 61)1 62)3 63)1 64)1 65)3 66)4 67)2 68)4 69)1 70)1 71)3 72)3 73)2 74)1 75)4 76)3 77)4 78)1 79)1 80)4 81)3 82)1 83)3 84)4 85)3 86)2 87)4 88)2 89)4 90)1 91)1 92)2 93)2 94)3 95)2 96)1 97)2 98)2 99)3 100)4  101)2 102)4 103)2 104)1 105)4 106)4 107)2 108)1 109)2 110)1 111)3 112)2 113)3 114)2 115)3 116)4 117)3 118)2 119)1 120)2 121)3 122)2 123)3 124)3 125)2 126)1 127)1 128)2 129)1 130)2 131)1 132)2 133)1 134)4 135)4 136)1 137)1 138)3 13​​9)2 140)2 141)1 142)2 143)2 144)3 145)2 146)1 147)1 148)3 149)3 150)3

APTET 2011 Paper-1 Answer Key Series-B:

1)4 2)4 3)4 4)3 5)2 6)2 7)1 8)4 9)3 10)1 11)1 12)1 13)1 14)1 15)1 16)2 17)2 18)1 19)2 20)4 21)2 22)3 23)4 24)1 25)3 26)1 27)4 28)2 29)2 30)3 31)1 32)2 33)3 34)1 35)1 36)1 37)4 38)2 39)3 40)3 41)1 42)1 43)3 44)1 45)1 46)4 47)4 48)4 49)4 50)3 51)2 52)3 53)2 54)1 55)4 56)2 57)3 58)4 59)1 60)4 61)2 62)4 63)2 64)3 65)2 66)3 67)2 68)3 69)1 70)4 71)3 72)2 73)3 74)1 75)1 76)3 77)4 78)1 79)2 80)4 81)3 82)1 83)3 84)2 85)2 86)3 87)1 88)4 89)2 90)1 91)3 92)2 93)2 94)4 95)3 96)4 97)3 98)1 99)4 100)4  101)3 102)3 103)4 104)4 105)1 106)4 107)4 108)4 109)4 110)1 111)2 112)4 113)2 114)4 115)3 116)4 117)1 118)2 119)1 120)4 121)3 122)4 123)3 124)4 125)3 126)2 127)2 128)4 129)3 130)1 131)4 132)4 133)3 134)4 135)4 136)1 137)1 138)4 139)1 140)1 141)4 142)3 143)3 144)4 145)3 146)1 147)1 148)1 149)4 150)3

APTET 2011 Paper-1 Answer Key Series-C:

1)4 2)4 3)4 4)3 5)3 6)4 7)3 8)1 9)3 10)2 11)1 12)4 13)2 14)4 15)1 16)3 17)3 18)2 19)1 20)1 21)1 22)2 23)3 24)3 25)4 26)1 27)2 28)4 29)4 30)4 31)1 32)2 33)3 34)2 35)3 36)4 37)4 38)3 39)2 40)4 41)4 42)1 43)1 44)3 45)2 46)2 47)4 48)4 49)2 50)4 51)4 52)1 53)1 54)1 55)1 56)4 57)1 58)1 59)3 60)2 61)3 62)2 63)1 64)2 65)3 66)2 67)4 68)3 69)1 70)3 71)2 72)4 73)4 74)1 75)2 76)3 77)4 78)1 79)2 80)4 81)3 82)1 83)3 84)2 85)1 86)3 87)4 88)3 89)2 90)4 91)1 92)4 93)3 94)1 95)3 96)1 97)2 98)3 99)3 100)1  101)2 102)1 103)2 104)4 105)1 106)4 107)1 108)2 109)1 110)1 111)4 112)1 113)1 114)1 115)3 116)4 117)1 118)2 119)1 120)4 121)2 122)1 123)1 124)4 125)4 126)1 127)4 128)4 129)1 130)2 131)2 132)1 133)2 134)1 135)2 136)1 137)2 138)3 139)3 140)1 141)2 142)4 143)1 144)1 145)2 146)1 147)4 148)4 149)4 150)2

APTET 2011 Paper-1 Answer Key Series-D:

1)2 2)2 3)2 4)2 5)2 6)2 7)1 8)1 9)2 10)1 11)3 12)1 13)4 14)3 15)2 16)4 17)2 18)3 19)1 20)1 21)4 22)3 23)3 24)3 25)4 26)1 27)1 28)2 29)3 30)4 31)3 32)1 33)4 34)4 35)2 36)2 37)4 38)2 39)2 40)3 41)3 42)3 43)3 44)4 45)1 46)4 47)1 48)2 49)2 50)1 51)4 52)2 53)2 54)3 55)2 56)3 57)3 58)1 59)4 60)3 61)4 62)2 63)1 64)3 65)1 66)4 67)3 68)4 69)1 70)2 71)2 72)3 73)4 74)1 75)4 76)3 77)4 78)1 79)2 80)4 81)3 82)1 83)3 84)2 85)1 86)2 87)1 88)4 89)2 90)3 91)4 92)2 93)3 94)2 95)3 96)4 97)3 98)3 99)2 100)3  101)3 102)3 103)3 104)2 105)1 106)3 107)1 108)3 109)3 110)1 111)1 112)3 113)4 114)3 115)2 116)3 117)4 118)3 119)2 120)1 121)3 122)4 123)4 124)3 125)4 126)3 127)4 128)3 129)4 130)1 131)1 132)3 133)4 134)2 135)3 136)3 137)4 138)3 139)3 140)2 141)2 142)3 143)2 144)2 145)2 146)2 147)2 148)4 149)4 150)3

APTET 2011 Paper-2 Answer Keys

AP Teachers Eligibility Test APTET 2011 Answer Keys of Paper-2 Social Studies & Science 

Exam Held on 31-07-201 

AP TET 2011 Paper-2 Social Studies Answer Key Series-A:

1)4 2)1 3)3 4)3 5)2 6)1 7)3 8)3 9)2 10)2 11)1 12)4 13)2 14)4 15)3 16)2 17)4 18)2 19)1 20)3 21)2 22)1 23)3 24)4 25)4 26)2 27)3 28)3 29)1 30)3 31)1 32)2 33)3 34)4 35)1 36)2 37)3 38)4 39)3 40)4 41)1 42)2 43)2 44)3 45)1 46)3 47)1 48)4 49)3 50)4 51)2 52)3 53)4 54)1 55)2 56)3 57)4 58)1 59)2 60)3 61)4 62)3 63)2 64)2 65)3 66)2 67)3 68)1 69)2 70)3 71)4 72)1 73)4 74)1 75)2 76)3 77)4 78)2 79)1 80)3 81)1 82)3 83)2 84)1 85)2 86)1 87)3 88)4 89)1 90)2 91)4 92)1 93)2 94)3 95)4 96)2 97)1 98)3 99)4 100)3  101)4 102)1 103)3 104)2 105)4 106)2 107)1 108)3 109)2 110)3 111)1 112)4 113)2 114)3 115)2 116)4 117)1 118)2 119)2 120)3 121)4 122)2 123)4 124)3 125)1 126)2 127)3 128)1 129)4 130)2 131)2 132)1 133)3 13​4)4 135)2 136)4 137)1 138)1 139)2 140)3 141)1 142)2 143)1 144)3 145)1 146)1 147)4 148)2 149)3 150)1

AP TET 2011 Paper-2 Social Studies Answer Key Series-B:

1)3 2)1 3)4 4)4 5)1 6)4 7)2 8)4 9)3 10)1 11)2 12)3 13)1 14)1 15)4 16)3 17)1 18)1 19)4 20)4 21)1 22)1 23)3 24)1 25)1 26)3 27)1 28)2 29)2 30)4 31)1 32)2 33)3 34)4 35)1 36)2 37)3 38)2 39)1 40)2 41)4 42)1 43)3 44)4 45)1 46)1 47)2 48)3 49)3 50)4 51)3 52)4 53)1 54)2 55)2 56)3 57)4 58)1 59)4 60)1 61)1 62)2 63)4 64)3 65)1 66)3 67)2 68)1 69)3 70)2 71)3 72)4 73)3 74)2 75)3 76)1 77)3 78)4 79)2 80)1 81)4 82)2 83)1 84)4 85)4 86)3 87)2 88)1 89)3 90)4 91)2 92)1 93)2 94)2 95)4 96)3 97)1 98)4 99)4 100)3  101)1 102)2 103)3 104)4 105)1 106)2 107)4 108)1 109)4 110)4 111)4 112)3 113)1 114)4 115)1 116)3 117)2 118)1 119)2 120)4 121)2 122)3 123)2 124)4 125)4 126)2 127)1 128)3 129)1 130)3 131)2 132)3 133)3 134)4 135)3 136)1 137)2 138)4 139)3 140)1 141)3 142)4 143)1 144)3 145)4 146)4 147)1 148)3 149)3 150)2

AP TET 2011 Paper-2 Social Studies Answer Key Series-C:

1)4 2)3 3)2 4)2 5)1 6)1 7)1 8)2 9)4 10)4 11)3 12)3 13)1 14)3 15)2 16)2 17)1 18)3 19)4 20)4 21)3 22)4 23)1 24)2 25)4 26)2 27)4 28)4 29)3 30)3 31)3 32)4 33)2 34)2 35)3 36)1 37)2 38)3 39)4 40)4 41)1 42)2 43)4 44)1 45)3 46)1 47)2 48)3 49)4 50)1 51)4 52)4 53)2 54)1 55)2 56)3 57)3 58)4 59)4 60)1 61)4 62)2 63)4 64)3 65)2 66)1 67)1 68)1 69)4 70)3 71)4 72)3 73)3 74)3 75)2 76)4 77)1 78)1 79)2 80)2 81)4 82)1 83)3 84)2 85)2 86)1 87)3 88)2 89)3 90)4 91)2 92)4 93)2 94)4 95)1 96)1 97)3 98)3 99)1 100)2  101)3 102)4 103)1 104)3 105)1 106)3 107)4 108)1 109)3 110)2 111)4 112)3 113)1 114)3 115)3 116)3 117)4 118)3 119)4 120)2 121)2 122)1 123)2 124)2 125)1 126)3 127)3 128)4 129)1 130)4 131)2 132)2 133)3 134)1 135)4 136)1 137)3 138)2 139)1 140)3 141)4 142)2 143)3 144)2 145)3 146)4 147)2 148)4 149)2 150)2

AP TET 2011 Paper-2 Social Studies Answer Key Series-D:

1)1 2)3 3)1 4)4 5)2 6)1 7)2 8)3 9)2 10)2 11)1 12)3 13)3 14)3 15)1 16)2 17)2 18)4 19)2 20)2 21)1 22)4 23)4 24)2 25)1 26)3 27)2 28)1 29)4 30)3 31)4 32)3 33)2 34)3 35)4 36)4 37)1 38)1 39)3 40)2 41)3 42)4 43)1 44)2 45)3 46)4 47)1 48)1 49)4 50)2 51)1 52)2 53)2 54)3 55)2 56)3 57)2 58)1 59)4 60)1 61)1 62)2 63)3 64)4 65)3 66)3 67)2 68)1 69)1 70)2 71)4 72)4 73)1 74)2 75)2 76)3 77)1 78)4 79)1 80)4 81)2 82)1 83)2 84)4 85)4 86)2 87)1 88)4 89)1 90)3 91)2 92)1 93)2 94)4 95)3 96)4 97)1 98)4 99)1 100)2  101)3 102)2 103)3 104)3 105)3 106)1 107)2 108)4 109)3 110)1 111)3 112)1 113)4 114)1 115)4 116)2 117)2 118)1 119)1 120)3 121)1 122)2 123)1 124)4 125)4 126)2 127)3 128)3 129)2 130)1 131)2 132)1 133)1 134)4 135)4 136)4 137)3 138)3 139)2 140)4 141)4 142)2 143)4 144)1 145)4 146)2 147)2 148)4 149)1 150)1

AP TET 2011 Paper-2 Science Answer Key Series-A:

1)4 2)1 3)3 4)3 5)2 6)1 7)3 8)3 9)2 10)2 11)1 12)4 13)2 14)4 15)3 16)2 17)4 18)2 19)1 20)3 21)2 22)1 23)3 24)4 25)4 26)2 27)3 28)3 29)1 30)3 31)1 32)2 33)3 34)4 35)1 36)2 37)3 38)4 39)3 40)4 41)1 42)2 43)2 44)3 45)1 46)3 47)1 48)4 49)3 50)4 51)2 52)3 53)4 54)1 55)2 56)3 57)4 58)1 59)2 60)3 61)4 62)3 63)2 64)2 65)3 66)2 67)3 68)1 69)2 70)3 71)4 72)1 73)4 74)1 75)2 76)3 77)4 78)2 79)1 80)3 81)1 82)3 83)2 84)1 85)2 86)1 87)3 88)4 89)1 90)2 91)4 92)1 93)4 94)3 95) ★ 96)1 97)2 98)3 99)1 100)4  101)3 102)2 103)3 104)4 105)4 106)2 107)4 108)1 109)2 110)3 111)2 112)1 113)3 114)4 115)1 116)3 117)4 118)4 119)2 120)1 121)4 122)3 123)2 124)1 125)2 126)4 127)3 128)3 129)1 130)2 131)4 132)2 133)2 134)1 135)2 136)2 137)1 138)3 139)1 140)3 141)1 142)2 143)2 144)2 145)4 146)4 147)3 148)4 149)1 150)2

AP TET 2011 Paper-2 Science Answer Key Series-B:

1)3 2)1 3)4 4)4 5)1 6)4 7)2 8)4 9)3 10)1 11)2 12)3 13)1 14)1 15)4 16)3 17)1 18)1 19)4 20)4 21)1 22)1 23)3 24)1 25)1 26)3 27)1 28)2 29)2 30)4 31)1 32)2 33)3 34)4 35)1 36)2 37)3 38)2 39)1 40)2 41)4 42)1 43)3 44)4 45)1 46)1 47)2 48)3 49)3 50)4 51)3 52)4 53)1 54)2 55)2 56)3 57)4 58)1 59)4 60)1 61)1 62)2 63)4 64)3 65)1 66)3 67)2 68)1 69)3 70)2 71)3 72)4 73)3 74)2 75)3 76)1 77)3 78)4 79)2 80)1 81)4 82)2 83)1 84)4 85)4 86)3 87)2 88)1 89)3 90)4 91)3 92)4 93)1 94)3 95)2 96)4 97)3 98)1 99)2 100)4  101)3 102)3 103)4 104)3 105)1 106)4 107)1 108)1 109)2 110)2 111)3 112)2 113)1 114) ★ 115)2 116)4 117)3 118)1 119)3 120)2 121)4 122)2 123)4 124)1 125)1 126)4 127)3 128)4 129)2 130)2 131)1 132)4 133)3 134)1 135)3 136)4 137)4 138)4 139)4 140)3 141)4 142)4 143)3 144)1 145)2 146)2 147)3 148)2 149)4 150)1

AP TET 2011 Paper-2 Science Answer Key Series-C:

1)4 2)3 3)2 4)2 5)1 6)1 7)1 8)2 9)4 10)4 11)3 12)3 13)1 14)3 15)2 16)2 17)1 18)3 19)4 20)1 21)3 22)4 23)1 24)2 25)4 26)2 27)4 28)4 29)3 30)3 31)3 32)4 33)2 34)2 35)3 36)1 37)2 38)3 39)4 40)4 41)1 42)2 43)4 44)1 45)3 46)1 47)2 48)3 49)4 50)1 51)4 52)4 53)2 54)1 55)2 56)3 57)3 58)4 59)4 60)1 61)4 62)2 63)4 64)3 65)2 66)1 67)1 68)1 69)4 70)3 71)4 72)3 73)3 74)3 75)2 76)4 77)1 78)1 79)2 80)2 81)4 82)1 83)3 84)2 85)2 86)1 87)3 88)2 89)3 90)4 91)3 92)4 93)4 94)1 95)4 96)2 97)1 98)4 99)3 100)2 101) ★ 102)2 103)3 104)1 105)2 106)1 107)4 108)3 109)2 110)4 111)1 112)3 113)2 114)2 115)1 116)1 117)4 118)2 119)2 120)3 121)3 122)1 123)2 124)3 125)1 126)4 127)1 128)3 129)3 130)2 131)2 132)4 133)2 134)4 135)2 136)3 137)2 138)3 139)3 140)3 141)4 142)2 143)3 144)3 145)3 146)4 147)1 148)2 149)1 150)1

AP TET 2011 Paper-2 Science Answer Key Series-D:

1)1 2)3 3)1 4)4 5)2 6)1 7)2 8)3 9)2 10)2 11)1 12)3 13)3 14)3 15)1 16)2 17)2 18)4 19)2 20)2 21)1 22)4 23)4 24)2 25)1 26)3 27)2 28)1 29)4 30)3 31)4 32)3 33)2 34)3 35)4 36)4 37)1 38)1 39)3 40)2 41)3 42)4 43)1 44)2 45)3 46)4 47)1 48)1 49)4 50)2 51)1 52)2 53)2 54)3 55)2 56)3 57)2 58)1 59)4 60)1 61)1 62)2 63)3 64)4 65)3 66)3 67)2 68)1 69)1 70)2 71)4 72)4 73)1 74)2 75)2 76)3 77)1 78)4 79)1 80)4 81)2 82)1 83)2 84)4 85)4 86)2 87)1 88)4 89)1 90)3 91)3 92)4 93)4 94)2 95)3 96)3 97)2 98)1 99)2 100)1  101)3 102)3 103)1 104)4 105)1 106)2 107)4 108)3 109)2 110) ★ 111)3 112)2 113)1 114)2 115)1 116)4 117)3 118)3 119)2 120)4 121)2 122)1 123)4 124)3 125)4 126)1 127)3 128)1 129)2 130)2 131)1 132)3 133)1 134)1 135)2 136)1 137)4 138)1 139)1 140)4 141)3 142)4 143)1 144)4 145)2 146)4 147)3 148)1 149)3 150)3
★ – Means Answer Not There in the Options.