GENERAL AWARENESS MCQs

1: What is called as the “Roof of the World”?

1. Indira Point
2. Kanchenjunga
3. Pamir Knot
4. Indira Col

Answer: 3.  Pamir knot
2: The illustrious names of Aryabhatta and Varahamihir are associated with the age of the

1. Guptas
2. Kushanas
3. Mauryas
4. Palas

Answer: 1.  Guptas
3: Who generally acknowledged as the pioneer of local self government in modern India?

1. Ripon
2. Mayo
3. Lytton
4. Curzon

Answer:  1.  Ripon
4: Which Article of the Constitution of India abolishes untouchability and forbids its practice in any form?

1. Article 16
2. Article 17
3. Article 18
4. Article 15

Answer: 2.  Article 17
5: The idea of Pakistan was first conceived by

1. Muhammad Iqbal
2. M. A. Jinnah
3. Shaukat Ali
4. Aga Khan

Answer: 1.  Muhammad Iqbal
6: Which of the following countries has introduced “Direct Democracy”?

1. Russia
2. India
3. France
4. Switzerland

Answer: 4.  Switzerland
7: Inflation occurs when aggregate supply is

1. More that aggregate demand
2. Less than aggregate demand
3. Equal to aggregate demand
4. None of the above

Answer: 2.  More that aggregate demand
8: Which State has the lowest per capita income in India?

1. Bihar
2. Orissa
3. Rajasthan
4. Gujrat

Answer: 2.  Orissa
9: In the budget figures of the Government of India, fiscal deficit is

1. Total expenditure – total receipts
2. Revenue expenditure – revenue receipts
3. Capital expenditure – capital receipts + market borrowings
4. Sum of budget deficit and Government’s market borrowings and liabilities

Answer: 1.  Total expenditure – total receipts
10: The eighth Joint Economic Group dialogue between China and India was held in January 2010 in Beijing, China after a gap of

1. two years
2. three years
3. four years
4. five years

Answer: 3.  four years
11: According to the recently released World Bank Report, the Chinese economy grew by the close of fourth quarter of 2009 at the rate of

1. 9.7 percent
2. 10.7 percent
3. 10.8 percent
4. 11 percent

Answer: 2.  10.7 percent
12: As per the quality of life Index 2010, which was released worldwide in January 2010, the united States occupies the

1. Second Place
2. Third Place
3. Fifth Place
4. Seventh Place

Answer: 4. Seventh Place
13: The India-France deal for civil nuclear corporation, which came into force in January 2010, had been signed between the two countries in

1. September 2008
2. October 2008
3. November 2008
4. December 2008

Answer: 1. September 2008
14: Wodeyars were the ruler of

1. Princely State of Mysore
2. Princely State of Travancore
3. Vijayanagaram
4. None of these

Answer: 1. Princely State of Mysore
15: “Black Pagoda” is in

1. Egypt
2. Srilanka
3. Madurai
4. Konark

Answer: 4. Konark
16: The meeting of the Rajya Sabha are presided over by the

1. President
2. Vice President
3. Prime Minister
4. Speaker

Answer: 2. Vice President
17: Lunar eclipse occurs on

1. A new moon day
2. A full moon day
3. A half moon day
4. both 1 and 2

Answer: 2. A full moon day
18: Which of the following crops helps in nitrogen fixation?

1. Rice
2. Wheat
3. Beans
4. Maize

Answer: 3. Beans
19: Detroit in the U. S. A. is known as the city of

1. Motor Car
2. Lights
3. Aeroplanes
4. Rockets

Answer: 1. Motor Car
20: The term “Fourth Estate” refers to

1. Backward States
2. Judiciary
3. Press
4. Tea Estate

Answer: 3. Press
21: SAIL’s plant in Karnataka is situated at

1. Bangalore
2. Bhadravati
3. Belgaum
4. Hubli

Answer: 2. Bhadravati
22: At which of the following place Rajiv Gandhi died of human bomb explosion?

1. New Delhi
2. Chennai
3. Sriperumbudur
4. Colombo

Answer: 3. Sriperumbudur
23: Who is not the Speaker of the Lok Sabha ever?

1. Somnath Chatterjee
2. P. A. Sangma
3. Meira Kumar
4. Sushma Swaraj

Answer: 4. Sushma Swaraj
24: The Governor General associated with the abolition of slavery was

1. Cornwallis
2. Bentinck
3. Dalhousie
4. Rippon

Answer: 2. Bentinck
25: The name of India’s first carrier is

1. INS Vikrant
2. INS Nilgiri
3. INS Kukri
4. INS Himgiri

Answer: 1. INS Vikrant
26: The general direct flow of summer monsoon in India is -

1. From South to North
2. From South West to South East
3. From South East to South West
4. From South West to North East

Answer: 2 From South West to South East
27: World No-Tobacco Day is observed on -

1. May 25
2. May 31
3. May28
4. May 24

Answer: 2. May 31
28: Which one of the following ecosystems covers the largest area of the earth’s surface?

1. Desert Ecosystem
2. Grassland Ecosystem
3. Mountain Ecosystem
4. Marine Ecosystem

Answer: 4. Marine Ecosystem
29: With which game is the Double Fault associated?

1. Lawn Tennis
2. Football
3. Cricket
4. Hockey

Answer: 2. Football
30: Where is the oldest oil refinery in India located?

1. Digboi
2. Cochin
3. Mathura
4. Guwahati

Answer: 1. Digboi
31: The Siwaliks stretch between -

1. Indus and Sutlaj
2. Potwar basin and Teesta
3. Sutlaj and Kali
4. None of these

Answer: 2. Potwar basin and Teesta
32: Thalassaemia is a hereditary disease affecting -

1. Blood
2. Lungs
3. Heart
4. Kidney

Answer: 1.  Blood
33: Polythene is industrially prepared by the polymerization of -

1. Methane
2. Styrene
3. Acetylene
4. Ethylene

Answer: 4. Ethylene
34: In cricket the length of pitch between the two wickets is -

1. 24 yards
2. 23 yards
3. 22 yards
4. 21 yards

Answer: 3.  22 yards
35: Which one of the following is not the official language of the United Nations Organisation?

1. Arabic
2. Chinese
3. Portuguese
4. Spanish

Answer: 3.  Portuguese
36: Which countries are separated by Mac Mohan Line?

1. India and Pakistan
2. China and Tibet
3. India and China
4. India and Bangladesh

Answer: 3.  India and China
37: Which one of the following is a water soluble vitamin?

1. Vitamin A
2. Vitamin C
3. Vitamin D
4. Vitamin K

Answer: 2. Vitamin C
38: Among the following who was the Speaker in two Lok Sabhas?

1. Rabi Ray
2. Shivraj Patil
3. P. A. Sangma
4. G. M. C Balyogi

Answer: 4.  G. M. C Balyogi
39: ‘Lakshya’ which is part of Indian Defence System is

1. Surface of air missile
2. Missile Firing Submarine
3. multi Barrel rocket System
4. Pilot-less target aircraft

Answer: 4. Pilot-less target aircraft
40: Which one of the following states has only one representatives each in Lok Sabha?

1. Manipur, Meghalaya
2. Himachal Pradesh and Jammu Kashmir
3. Arunachal Pradesh and Tripura
4. Mizoram and Nagaland

Answer: 4.  Mizoram and Nagaland
41: Who among the following is known as the guardian of the Public Purse in India?

1. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India
2. The President
3. The Minister of Finance
4. The parliament

Answer: 1.  The Comptroller and Auditor General of India
42: Biological Oxygen demand (BOD) is used as a standard measure of

1. Oxygen level in forest System
2. Oxygen level in animals
3. Oxygen level in water system
4. Oxygen level in atmosphere

Answer: 3.  Oxygen level in water system
43: Which of the following Crops is of Kharif Season?

1. Soyabean
2. Linseed
3. lentil
4. Mustard

Answer: 1.  Soyabean
44: Fruit most suitable for making jelly is

1. Papaya
2. Karunda
3. Mango
4. Banana

Answer: 3.  Mango
45: Who was the first chief Justice of Supreme court of Calcutta?

1. Hyde
2. Elijah Impey
3. Lemaistre
4. Monson

Answer: 2.  Elijah Impey
46: By which of the following Acts were the Commercial Rights of East India Company Abolished?

1. Regulating Act of 1773
2. Charter Act of 1813
3. Charter Act of 1833
4. Charter Act of 1853

Answer: 3.  Charter Act of 1833
47: Who Was the founder of All India Muslim League?

1. Sir Syed Ahmad Khan
2. Nawab Saleem Ullah Khan
3. Liyaqat Ali Khan
4. Mohammad Ali Jinnah

Answer: 2.  Nawab Saleem Ullah Khan
48: Vishakhapatnam Steel Plant obtains its iron ore from the mines of

1. Bababudan
2. Bailadila
3. Dalli-Rajhra
4. Gurumahisaini

Answer: 1.  Bababudan
49: The First Finance Commission was constituted in the year

1. 1956
2. 1953
3. 1952
4. 1951

Answer: 4.  1951
50: Which one of the following Settlements comprised Zamindar as middleman to collect the land revenue?

1. Mahalwari Settlement
2. Ryotwari Settlement
3. Permanent Settlement
4. None of the above

Answer: 3.  Permanent Settlement
51: Which of the following was the court language during the reign of Akbar?

1. Hindi
2. Urdu
3. Persian
4. Arabic

Answer: 3.  Persian
52: What were the districts called in the Vijaynagar empire?

1. Nadu
2. Khurram
3. Kottam
4. Janpad

Answer: 3.  Kottam
53: Which was the first National News Agency of India?

1. The Indian Review
2. The Free Press of India
3. The Associated Press of India
4. None of the above

Answer: 3. The Associated Press of India
54: The depiction of the stones of the previous lives of Gautama Buddha was first done in the art of

1. Sarnath Pillar of Asoka
2. Bharhut Stupa
3. Ajanta Caves
4. Eilora Caves

Answer: 2.  Bharhut Stupa
55: The British Parliament can do everything except make a woman a man and a woman a man?To whom is this statement ascribed?

1. Dicey
2. Hegal
3. De Lolme
4. none of above

Answer: 3.  De Lolme
56: Which of the following states did not come into being in 1987?

1. Mizoram
2. Arunachal Pradesh
3. Goa
4. Manipur

Answer: 4.  Manipur
57: The number of Zonal Councils in India is

1. Five
2. Four
3. Seven
4. Eight

Answer: 1.  Five
58: National Commission for Back ward Classes was established in

1. 1994
2. 1993
3. 1995
4. 1999

Answer: 2. 1993
59: Indravati Hydroelectric Project is the multipurpose projet of

1. Maharashtra state
2. Gujarat state
3. Orissa State
4. Tamil Nadu state

Answer: 3.  Orissa State
60: Which sector contributes the maximum share in National income of India?

1. Primary
2. Secondary
3. Tertiary
4. All the above have equal share

Answer: 3.  Tertiary
61: Shankarlal Guru committee was associated With

1. Agricultural Marketing
2. Agricultural production
3. Public Distribution System
4. None of above

Answer: 1.  Agricultural Marketing
62: IMF is the result of

1. Hawana Conference
2. Rome Conference
3. Brettonwood Conference
4. Geneva Conference

Answer: 3.  Brettonwood Conference
63: The Difference between Gross Domestic product and Net Domestic product is

1. Government Revenue
2. Net Indirect Tax (Indirect Tax Subsidy)
3. Consumption of fixed Capital
4. Net Capital Formation

Answer: 4.  Net Capital Formation
64: First share market in India was established in

1. Delhi
2. Mumbai
3. Kolkata
4. chennai

Answer: 2.  Mumbai
65: The acronym STD written on Telephone booth stands for

1. Straight Telephone Dial
2. Switch Telephone Dial
3. Subscriber Telephone Dialing
4. Save Telephone Dialing

Answer: 3.  Subscriber Telephone Dialing
66: India has signed a landamrk deal for sale of Dhruv Advance Light Helicopters (ALHs) with

1. Venezuela
2. Peru
3. Ecuador
4. Chile

Answer: 3. Ecuador
67: Humidity is measured by which of the following instrument?

1. Barometer
2. Thermometer
3. Hygrometer
4. Hydrometer

Answer: 3.  Hygrometer
68: Rabindranath Tagore was awarded Noble Prize for his literary work named

1. Geetanjali
2. Rajtarangini
3. Chokher Bali
4. Kapal Kundala

Answer: 1. Geetanjali
69: Which of the following department of Indian Government takes care of education of children with physical disabilities?

1. Ministry of Welfare
2. Ministry of Sports
3. Ministry of HRD
4. Ministry of Rural Development

Answer: 1. Ministry of Welfare
70: Amrita Pritam’s work “A Revenue Stamp” is

1. A book of stories
2. A novel
3. A biography
4. An autobiography

Answer: 4.  An autobiography
71: “Nadi Ke Dweep” is the creation of

1. Nirmala Verma
2. Krishna Sobit
3. Gajanan Madhav Muktibodh
4. Sachidananda Heeranand Vatsyayan Agyeya

Answer: 4.  Sachidananda Heeranand Vatsyayan Agyeya
72: The poetic work “Rashmirathi” was written by

1. Maithilisharan Gupt
2. Mahadevi Verma
3. Ramdhari Singh Dinkar
4. Surya Kant Tripathi Nirala

Answer: 3.  Ramdhari Singh Dinkar
73: “Operation Black Board” refers to providing schools with

1. Enough number of black boards
2. New type of black boards
3. Training for using new type of black boards
4. All essential learning materials.

Answer: 4.  Training for using new type of black boards
74: Transistors used in electronic equipments are mostly made of

1. Silver
2. Copper
3. Silicon
4. Carbon

Answer: 3.  Silicon
75: The disease diphtheria affects

1. Lungs
2. Intestine
3. Throat
4. Body joints

Answer: 3.  Throat
76: Which of the following is the brightest planet as seen from the earth?

1. Mercury
2. Uranus
3. Venus
4. Mars

Answer: 3.  Venus
77: The Harry Potter series is written by

1. K K Rowling
2. K J Rowling
3. J K Rowling
4. A K Rowling

Answer: 3.  J K Rowling
78: The most common communicable disease is

1. Influenza
2. Typhoid
3. Cholera
4. Polio

Answer: 1.  Influenza
79: Among the following, the richest source of protein is

1. Ground Nut
2. Rice
3. Potato
4. Apple

Answer: 1.  Ground Nut
80: Taoism is a school of

1. Chinese philosophy
2. Japanese philosophy
3. Buddhist philosophy
4. Sri Lankan philosophy

Answer: 1.  Chinese Philosophy
81: Hydrogen is used instead of Helium to fill balloons for meteorology because

1. of its low density
2. It is not very reactive under normal conditions
3. It is almost insoluble in water
4. It can be prepared easily

Answer: 1.  of its low density
82: The most abundant element in the earth’s crust is

1. Silicon
2. Aluminium
3. Nitrogen
4. Oxygen

Answer: 4.  Oxygen
83: Stainless steel is an example of

1. A metallic compound
2. A homogeneous mixture
3. A heterogeneous mixture
4. An inorganic compound

Answer: 1.  A metallic compound
84: The Non-Cooperation Movement was ultimately withdrawn by Mahatma Gandhi

1. On the directions of the Party
2. On account of amicable settlement with the British
3. On account of violent incidents at Chauri-Chaura
4. On account of excessive repression by the Government

Answer: 3.  On account of violent incidents at Chauri-Chaura
85: The Preamble of the Constitution after 42nd amendment declares India

1. Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic
2. Sovereign Democratic Republic
3. Federal Democratic Republic
4. Federal Socialist Democratic Republic

Answer: 1.  Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic
86: The International Date Line is the

1. Equator
2. 0° Longitude
3. 88° East Longitude
4. 180° Longitude

Answer: 4.  180° Longitude
87: The real executive power under a Parliamentary Government rests with

1. The Parliament
2. The King
3. The Council of Ministers
4. The Civil Servants

Answer: 3.  The Council of Ministers
88: Who among the following was the first Maratha Ruler to get legal recognition from the Mughals?

1. Sahuji
2. Shivaji
3. Balaji Baji Rao
4. Sambhaji

Answer: 1.  Sahuji
89: The average solar day is approximately

1. 24 hrs
2. 24 hrs 15 minutes
3. 24 hrs 52 minutes
4. 24 hrs 15 Second

Answer: 1.  24 hrs
90: The constellation Sapta-Rishi is known to westerns as the

1. Seven Monks
2. Alpha Centauri
3. Big Dipper
4. Small Bear

Answer: 3.  Big Dipper
91: One kilobyte is equal to

1. 1000 bytes
2. 1024 bytes
3. 100 bytes
4. 1023 bytes

Answer: 2.  1024 bytes
92: Which of the following is a cellulose fiber?

1. Cotton
2. Wool
3. Rayon
4. Polyester

Answer: 1.  Cotton
93: Which of the following is not an example of Operating System?

1. Windows 98
2. BSD Unix
3. Microsoft Office XP
4. Red Hat Linux

Answer: 3. Microsoft Office XP
94: Which of the following vitamins helps in the absorption of calcium?

1. Vitamin A
2. Vitamin B
3. Vitamin C
4. Vitamin D

Answer: 4.  Vitamin D
95: Dengue fever is spread by

1. Aedes aegypti mosquito
2. Common House flies
3. Anophilies mosquito
4. Rodent like rats and squirrels

Answer: 1.  Aedes aegypti mosquito
96: Which of the following is not a fundamental right of the Indian citizens?

1. Right to property
2. Right to freedom of expression
3. Right to vote
4. Right to remain silence

Answer: 1.  Right to property
97: Which supercomputer is developed by the Indian Scientists?

1. Param
2. Super 301
3. Compaq Presario
4. CRAY YMP

Answer: 1.  Param
98: Genome is the key to tomorrow’s medical practices because

1. It unleashes an information revolution
2. It provides a new outlook into medicine
3. It is a new way of making drugs
4. It can enable customized medicines.

Answer: 2.  it provides a new outlook into medicine
99: Which of the following is not a missile tested in Indian Missile Programme?

1. Agni
2. Trishul
3. Prithvi
4. Arjun

Answer: 4.  Arjun
100: Mahatma Gandhi started his struggle against apartheid in

1. Natal
2. Transvaal
3. Johannesberg
4. Champaran

Answer: 1.  Natal

Writs in India

Writs - Provisions in Indian Constitution

The Indian Constitution empowers the Supreme Court to issue writs as mentioned above for enforcement of any of the fundamental rights conferred by Part III of Indian Constitution. (Article 32) Thus the power to issue writs is primarily a provision made to make available the Right to Constitutional Remedies to every citizen. The Right to Constitutional Remedies, as we know, is a guarantor of all other fundamental rights available to the people of India.
In addition to the above, the Constitution also provides for the Parliament to confer on the Supreme Court power to issue writs, for purposes other than those mentioned above.
Similary High Courts in India are also empowered to issue writs for the enforcement of any of the rights conferred by Part III and for any other purpose.

Types of Writs

There are five types of Writs - Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari and Quo warranto.

1. Habeas Corpus

"Habeas Corpus" is a Latin term which literally means "you may have the body." The writ is issued to produce a person who has been detained , whether in prison or in private custody, before a court and to release him if such detention is found illegal.

2. Mandamus

Mandamus is a Latin word, which means "We Command". Mandamus is an order from the Supreme Court or High Court to a lower court or tribunal or public authority to perform a public or statutory duty. This writ of command is issued by the Supreme Court of High court when any government, court, corporation or any public authority has to do a public duty but fails to do so.

3. Certiorari

Literally, Certiorari means to be certified. The writ of certiorari can be issued by the Supreme Court or any High Court for quashing the order already passed by an inferior court, tribunal or quasi judicial authority. There are several conditions necessary for the issue of writ of certiorari

1. There should be court, tribunal or an officer having legal authority to determine the question with a duty to act judicially.
2. Such a court, tribunal or officer must have passed an order acting without jurisdiction or in excess of the judicial authority vested by law in such court, tribunal or officer.
3. The order could also be against the principles of natural justice or the order could contain an error of judgment in appreciating the facts of the case.

4. Prohibition

The Writ of prohibition means to forbid or to stop and it is popularly known as 'Stay Order'. This writ is issued when a lower court or a body tries to transgress the limits or powers vested in it. The writ of prohibition is issued by any High Court or the Supreme Court to any inferior court, or quasi judicial body prohibiting the latter from continuing the proceedings in a particular case, where it has no jurisdiction to try. After the issue of this writ, proceedings in the lower court etc. come to a stop.
Difference between Prohibition and Certiorari:

1. While the writ of prohibition is available during the pendency of proceedings, the writ of certiorari can be resorted to only after the order or decision has been announced.
2. Both the writs are issued against legal bodies.

5. The Writ of Quo-Warranto

The word Quo-Warranto literally means "by what warrants?" or "what is your authority"? It is a writ issued with a view to restrain a person from holding a public office to which he is not entitled. The writ requires the concerned person to explain to the Court by what authority he holds the office. If a person has usurped a public office, the Court may direct him not to carry out any activities in the office or may announce the office to be vacant. Thus High Court may issue a writ of quo-warranto if a person holds an office beyond his retirement age.

Writs in brief

Type of Writ	Meaning of the word	Purpose of issue
Habeas Corpus	You may have the body	To release a person who has been detained unlawfully whether in prison or in private custody.
Mandamus	We Command	To secure the performance of public duties by lower court, tribunal or public authority.
Certiorari	To be certified	To quash the order already passed by an inferior court, tribunal or quasi judicial authority.
Prohibition	-	To prohibit an inferior court from continuing the proceedings in a particular case where it has no jurisdiction to try.
Quo Warranto	What is your authority?	To restrain a person from holding a public office which he is not entitled.

Bank of Maharashtra Probationary Officer Exam.

General Awareness
(Exam Held on 19-12-2010)


1. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the economy of China ? (It was recently in news).
1. China is the world’s fastest growing economy with average growth rate of 10% for the last 30 years.
2. China is the world’s second largest economy by purchasing power parity.
3. China’s economy was valued a little higher than that of Japan’s.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) All 1, 2 and 3
(D) Only 2 and 3
(E) Only 1 and 2
Ans : (D)

2. As per the news published a few days back Reliance Power got a huge loan from the US Export-Import Bank for building a coal fired based power plant in India. The plant will be developed in—
(A) Sasan (MP)
(B) Angul (Odisha)
(C) Banswara (Rajasthan)
(D) Barauni (Bihar)
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

3. As per the reports published in various newspapers, the Reserve Bank of India has directed all core investment companies in India to register themselves with it if their asset size is 100 crore or more. Which of the following is True about the Core Investment Companies (CICs) ?
1. CICs are non-banking finance companies.
2. CICs invest in shares for the purpose of taking stake in a company rather than for trading.
3. CICs are required to register with RBI as most of them were found involved in business in foreign countries and not in India.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 1 and 2
(C) Only 2 and 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)


4. As per newspaper reports, the RBI recently divested its stake in NABARD. Now RBI’s stake in it is only—
(A) 10%
(B) 5%
(C) 3%
(D) 1%
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

5. The Union Commerce and Industry Minister, while talking to press expressed his desire that India and USA both should work together for a Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA). How will this help India ?
1. It is the agreement which allows liberalization of trade in goods by cutting/eliminating tariffs on most or all goods from both the sides.
2. It will help in easing of the flow of investment and special treatment to each other.
3. It will help USA to outsource more jobs to Indian companies and also to employ more Indians without any restriction.
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 1
(C) Only 2 and 3
(D) Only 1 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

6. Immediately prior to Prithviraj Chavan who amongst the following was the Chief Minister of Maharashtra ?
(A) Vilasrao Deshmukh
(B) Ashok Chavan
(C) Ajit Pawar
(D) R.R. Patil
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

7. The RBI has been asked to study and give a report on the loan waiver scheme announced by the United Progressive Alliance Govt. for farmers in 2008. How much amount was given by the Govt. for the scheme ? About—
(A) 10,000 crore
(B) 20,000 crore
(C) 50,000 crore
(D) 71,680 crore
(E) 2,00,000 crore
Ans : (D)

8. Which of the following organizations/agencies has sought an emergency fund of 1000 crore from banks to tackle acute liquidity crisis, which is coming in the way to give loans to micro borrowers ?
(A) Regional Rural and Cooperative Banks
(B) RBI
(C) Micro Finance Institutions
(D) NABARD
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

9. The ministry of Finance recently released a comprehensive paper on Govt. debt. Which of the following is/are true about the same ?
1. The paper presents the road map for general debt to be raised by the Govt. of India during the period of 2011-2015 which is the period of the awards of the 13th Finance Commission.
2. As per the estimates, the target debt in the terminal year 2014-15 will be lower than whatever recommended by the 13th Finance Commission.
3. The paper has recommended that the Govt. should try to generate resources in such a way that it does not have to depend much on debt.’ The total debt should not be more than 1/3rd of the total requirements.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 1 and 2
(D) Only 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

10. As a measure to check inflation, the RBI on November 2, 2010 increased its short term indicative rates Repo and Reverse Repo by—
(A) 25 basis points
(B) 50 basis points
(C) 75 basis points
(D) 100 basis points
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

11. What is the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) at present ?
(A) 4%
(B) 4•5%
(C) 5%
(D) 5•5%
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

12. The Finance Ministry has decided to provide 8,700 crore as equity support to public sector banks so that they can raise funds from the capital market without diluting the Govt. holding in them. What is the Govt. holding in most of the public sector banks ?
(A) 49%
(B) 50%
(C) 51%
(D) 59%
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

13. Which of the following is not amongst the core industries/sectors ?
(A) Coal
(B) Service sector
(C) Crude oil
(D) Power
(E) Steel
Ans : (E)

14. Who amongst the following Indian players won maximum number of Gold Medals (4 gold) in Commonwealth Games 2011 held in Delhi ?
(A) Saina Nehwal
(B) Deepika Kumari
(C) Sushil Kumar
(D) Gagan Narang
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

15. Mr. Zhou Yong Kang was recently on a visit to India. Who is Mr. Zhou Yong Kang ?
(A) President of China
(B) Member of the Polit Bureau of China
(C) Prime Minister of Vietnam
(D) Member of the Polit Bureau of Vietnam
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

16. The countries these days are most worried about the currency war. They are arguing about whose actions harmed the world economy the most. What are the views of the rich countries, particularly USA, in this regard ?
1. They feel that it was China who was unwilling to allow the Yuan to rise.
2. They feel that it was India who had snatched jobs in most of the European countries and USA. This made
the situation more grim.
3. Some countries feel that it was Japan who allowed swapping of its currency with other nations and created a grim situation in world market.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

17. As per reports in various newspapers, Ben Bernanke, the Chairman of the Federal Reserve has predicted a bleak outlook for the economy in his country. This means the economy in which of the following countries is likely to be gloomy in the days to come ?
(A) UK
(B) Australia
(C) Canada
(D) Germany
(E) USA
Ans : (E)

18. India recently signed some agreements of strategic importance with Japan. Which of the following areas are covered under these agreements ?
1. Some mega infrastructure projects in North-Western India.
2. Implementation of a Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement.
3. India’s role in resolving crisis in Sudan.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 1 and 2
(E) Only 2 and 3
Ans : (D)

19. Which of the following is true about the Sudanese Civil War which is going on since last several years ?
1. The war started in 2003 when the Sudan Liberation Movement Army and some others took up arms against the Govt. of Sudan.
2. The main accusation was that the Govt. is involved in genocide of blacks in favour of Arabs.
3. The main cause of the war is Govt.’s support to European Nations and non willingness to join OPEC. The other party feels Sudan should play active role in OPEC as it is one of the main oil producing nations.
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

20. ‘FBTR’ is a term/abbreviated name related to the area of—
(A) Nuclear Power
(B) Agriculture
(C) Economy
(D) Medical Science
(E) Sports
Ans : (A)

21. World’s largest Diamond Bourse was recently inaugurated in—
(A) New Delhi
(B) Kolkata
(C) Hyderabad
(D) Jaipur
(E) Mumbai
Ans : (E)

22. Which of the following summits (17th summit) was organized in Hanoi in October 2010 in which Dr. Manmohan Singh took part ?
(A) G-8
(B) G-15
(C) OPEC
(D) EU
(E) ASEAN
Ans : (E)

23. The European Union is recently considering its membership to Serbia. Years back Serbia decided to become an independent nation by breaking up from—
(A) Russia
(B) Yugoslavia
(C) Armenia
(D) Lithuania
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

24. Busher Nuclear Plant was recently in news. The plant is located in—
(A) Iraq
(B) Russia
(C) Iran
(D) UAE
(E) North Korea
Ans : (C)

25. N. K. P. Salve Challenger Series is a tournament associated with which of the following games ?
(A) Hockey
(B) Football
(C) Cricket
(D) Lawn Tennis
(E) Badminton
Ans : (C)

26. ‘Irani Trophy’ is associated with—
(A) Hockey
(B) Badminton
(C) Football
(D) Lawn Tennis
(E) Cricket
Ans : (E)

27. Trecia Kaye Smith’s name was in news recently. She is a well known—
(A) Athlete
(B) Journalist
(C) Film Actress
(D) Politician
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

28. Dilma Rousseff has taken over as the first female President of—
(A) Japan
(B) Brazil
(C) Cameroon
(D) Romania
(E) Portugal
Ans : (B)

29. Miss World 2010 contest in which Alexandria Mills was crowned ‘Miss World’ was organized in —
(A) China
(B) India
(C) Britain
(D) France
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

30. Roger Federer won the Stockholm open 2010 by defeating—
(A) Leander Paes
(B) Mikhail Youzhny
(C) Rafael Nadal
(D) Gael Monfils
(E) Florian Mayer
Ans : (E)

31. Harward Jacobson’s name was recently in news. Who is Harward Jacobson ?
(A) Film Actor
(B) Politician
(C) Author
(D) Sports person
(E) Journalist
Ans : (C)

32. Which of the following is recognized as the biggest cause of Global Hunger in the world ?
(A) Inflation
(B) Poor management of public distribution system
(C) Unemployment and/or underemployment
(D) Malnutrition
(E) All of these
Ans : (D)

33. What is the purpose of National Green Tribunal, which started functioning recently ?
(A) It is a Save Earth Campaign
(B) It will hear the cases related to environmental degradation
(C) It is launched to promote awareness towards climatic changes
(D) Its main aim is to give suggestions–how to protect and increase forest cover in India
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

34. Shri Nitish Kumar who won the recent elections held in Bihar is from which of the following parties ?
(A) Congress (I)
(B) BSP
(C) JD (U)
(D) Communist Party of India
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

35. ‘‘The Bridge–The Life and Rise of Barack Obama’’, is a book written by—
(A) Cynthia Tucker
(B) Sarah Palin
(C) Barbara Walters
(D) Michelle Obama
(E) David Remnick
Ans : (E)

36. Human Rights Day is observed on which of the following dates ?
(A) December 15th
(B) December 20th
(C) December 10th
(D) November 15th
(E) November 20th
Ans : (C)

37. The 8th Asia-Europe Meeting (ASEM) was organized in October 2010 in—
(A) New Delhi
(B) Paris
(C) Dhaka
(D) London
(E) Brussels
Ans : (E)

38. Dale T. Mortensen and Christopher A. Pissarides are the joint winners of the Nobel Prize 2010 in—
(A) Medicine
(B) Economics
(C) Literature
(D) Peace
(E) Physics
Ans : (B)

39. Mr. O. N. V. Kurup who is the winner of the Jnanpith Award, announced recently, writes in—
(A) Tamil
(B) Telugu
(C) Malayalam
(D) English
(E) Hindi
Ans : (C)

40. The Govt. of India recently brought an IPO to offload its 10% stake in which of the following companies ?
(A) Hindustan Organic Chemicals Ltd.
(B) Electronics Corporation of India Ltd.
(C) Steel Authority of India Ltd.
(D) Air India Ltd.
(E) Coal India Ltd.
Ans : (E)

41. Which of the following terms is not used in the field of banking and finance ?
(A) Blue chip companies
(B) Commercial paper
(C) Hedge
(D) Premium Bonds
(E) Wobbe Index
Ans : (E)

42. Which of the following prizes/award is not given for excellence in literature ?
(A) Murtidevi Award
(B) Arjuna Award
(C) Vyas Samman
(D) Pulitzer Prize
(E) Saraswati Samman
Ans : (B)

43. Which of the following schemes is not launched by the Govt. of India ?
(A) Mid Day Meal Scheme
(B) Rural Health Mission
(C) Programme for Control of Blindness
(D) Jeevan Anurag
(E) ASHA
Ans : (E)

44. Which of the following programmes is run by the Govt. of India to provide safeguard against starvation during the period of natural calamities ?
(A) Targeted Public Distribution System
(B) Antyodaya Anna Yojana
(C) National Food for work programme
(D) Village Grain Bank Scheme
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

45. India is not self-sufficient in the production of—
(A) Sugar
(B) Milk
(C) Wheat
(D) Edible oil
(E) Jute
Ans : (E)

46. Which of the following is a famous Pharma Company in India ?
(A) HCL
(B) BPCL
(C) IDPL
(D) Infosys Technology
(E) Grasim Industries
Ans : (C)

47. Rohan Bopanna who represented India in International events is a famous—
(A) Football player
(B) Lawn Tennis player
(C) Cricket player
(D) Hockey player
(E) Athlete
Ans : (B)

48. As per Fortune Magazine who amongst the following Indians is ‘The Businessman of the Year’ ?
(A) Anil Agarwal
(B) Kumarmangalam Birla
(C) Mukesh Ambani
(D) Ratan Tata
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

49. The World Habitat Day is observed on which of the following dates ?
(A) October 24
(B) October 14
(C) November 4
(D) November 14
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

50. Chewang Norphel who was given prestigious Jamnalal Bajaj Award 2010 recently, has made contributions in the field of—
(A) Rural development
(B) Literature
(C) Folk art/music
(D) Sports
(E) Film production
Ans : (A)

Union Bank of India Clerk (Second Shift) Exam.

English Language
(Exam Held on 6-2-2011)


Directions—(Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.

Once upon a time, there lived a cruel Lion by the name of Bhasuraka, in a dense forest. He was very powerful, ferocious and arrogant. He used to kill the other animals in the forest to gratify his hunger. His behaviour caused the other animals in the forest to worry. They were worried that after sometime none of them would be left alive. They discussed their problem amongst themselves and decided to hold a meeting with the Lion.

One day, as per the plan, all the animals of the forest gathered under a big tree. They invited the Lion, the king of the forest to attend the meeting. In the meeting, the representative of the animals said, “Your Majesty, we are grateful, that you are our king. We are all the more happy that you are attending this meeting”. The Lion thanked them and replied, “What is the matter ? Why have we gathered here ?” One of the animals stood up and said, “Sir, its natural that you have to kill us for food. But, killing more than what is required is not a good approach. If you go on killing the animals without any purpose, very soon a day will come, when there will be no animal left in the forest.” The Lion roared, “So what are you proposing ?” One of the animals replied, “Your Majesty, we have already discussed the problem among ourselves and have come up with a solution. We have decided to send one animal daily to your den. You can kill and eat it, the way you like. This will also save you the trouble of hunting.” The Lion replied, “Fine. I agree to this proposal, but make sure that the animal reaches me on time, otherwise, I will kill all the animals of the forest.” The animals agreed.

From that day onwards, an animal was sent to the Lion daily to become his meal. The Lion was very happy to have his food right before him without taking any pains of hunting. A day came when it was the turn of the rabbit to go to the Lion’s den. The rabbit was old and wise. He was unwilling to go, but the other animals forced him to go. The rabbit thought of a plan that would save his life and the lives of the other animals in the forest. He took his own sweet time to go to the Lion and reached the Lion’s den a little later than the usual time.

The Lion was getting impatient and he was extremely furious when he saw a small rabbit for his meal. He swore to kill all the animals. The rabbit with folded hands hesitatingly explained, “Your Majesty. I am not to be blamed for my delay. Actually, six rabbits were sent to make your meal, but five of them were killed and devoured by another Lion.’’ He also claimed to be the king of the forest. I have somehow escaped to reach here safely.

The Lion howled in great anger and said, “Impossible, there cannot be another king of this forest. I’ll kill him. Take me to the place where you saw him.” The intelligent rabbit agreed and took the Lion towards a deep well, filled with water. When they reached the well, the rabbit said, “This is the place where he lives. He might be hiding inside.” The Lion looked into the well and saw his own reflection. He thought it was the other Lion. The Lion was furious and started growling. Naturally the image in the water, the other Lion, was also equally angry. In order to kill the other Lion, he jumped into the well and drowned. Thus, the jubilant rabbit saved all the animals from the Lion and they all lived cheerfully thereafter.

1. Why was the Lion called for a meeting ?
(A) The animals in the forest wanted to discuss their problem about the other lion who lived in the well with him
(B) The animals in the forest were not satisfied with him
(C) The animals wanted to organize a party for him in gratitude
(D) The animals wanted to nominate another king
(E) The animals wanted to propose a solution to their problem
Ans : (E)

2. Where did the animals schedule to have the meeting ?
(A) In the Lion’s den
(B) At the outskirts of the forest
(C) In the forest under a big tree
(D) Beside the well
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

3. The animals had a problem with their King because—
(a) He was killing more animals than was required.
(b) He was a very selfish king.
(c) He chose to eat one animal a day as his meal.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) Only (a) and (b)
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)


4. What did the animals decide at the meeting ?
(A) That the Lion kill them together once and for all
(B) That the Lion be transferred to another forest
(C) That it was time for the Lion to retire
(D) To send one animal daily to the Lion’s den as his meal
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

5. On what condition did the Lion agree to the proposal ?
(A) That he would not have to hunt ever again
(B) That he be given only the best
(C) That the animal for his meal reaches him on time
(D) That he would have a lasting supply of food
(E) That he would still remain the King of the forest
Ans : (C)

6. Why was the rabbit unwilling to go to the Lion ?
(A) He didn’t want to be killed
(B) He was scared of the Lion
(C) He felt intimidated by the Lion
(D) He was too old to walk
(E) He wanted to spend time with his rabbit friends
Ans : (A)

7. Why did the Lion, the King of the forest jump into the well ?
(A) He liked to swim
(B) He was thirsty
(C) He saw his reflection
(D) He committed suicide
(E) He wanted to kill the other Lion
Ans : (E)

8. The rabbit took his own sweet time to reach the Lion as—
(a) He got lost on the way.
(b) He wanted to make the Lion angry.
(c) He met five of his friends on the way.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) Only (a) and (c)
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

9. What did the Lion see when he looked into the well ?
(A) The other animals
(B) The rabbit’s reflection
(C) The five other rabbits
(D) A well half filled with water
(E) His own reflection
Ans : (E)

10. What could be an appropriate title for the story ?
(A) The Foolish Lion and the Wise Rabbit
(B) The Foolish Animals
(C) The Lion’s Reflection
(D) The Empty Well
(E) Bhasuraka, the King of the Forest
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 11–13) Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

11. Gratify
(A) Indulge
(B) Cease
(C) Submit
(D) Satisfy
(E) Quiet
Ans : (D)

12. Proposal
(A) Fact
(B) Application
(C) Suggestion
(D) Routine
(E) Wish
Ans : (C)

13. Devoured
(A) Appreciated
(B) Consumed
(C) Sacrificed
(D) Cherished
(E) Valued
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 14 and 15) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

14. Escaped
(A) Rescued
(B) Withdrew
(C) Returned
(D) Captured
(E) Disappear
Ans : (A)

15. Gathered
(A) Collected
(B) Arrived
(C) Dispersed
(D) Joined
(E) Met
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 16–25) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E) i.e. ‘No Error’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

16. If you need someone (A) / to helping you (B) / I shall be free (C) / all day tomorrow. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

17. My friend (A) / gift me two (B) / cookery books, (C) / which I find very useful. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

18. The dentist stressed (A) / on the importance (B) / of brushing one’s teeth (C) / two time regularly. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

19. Comparing to the other (A) / states in India, (B) / Goa is the (C) / smallest geographically. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

20. What are (A) / the main ingredients (B) / in cooking (C) / South Indian dishes ? (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)

21. The water (A) / in the canal (B) / was much more higher (C) / than usual. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

22. The medias, (A) / especially television, (B) / has a very powerful (C) / influence on children. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

23. Our mathematics teacher (A) / does not allow us (B) / to use a calculator (C) / during her class. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

24. The courses (A) / in the field of psychology (B) / should provide more (C) / practical sessions. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

25. Last year there were (A) / so many mangoes (B) / that we had to give (C) / the half of them away. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 26–30) Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

26. One requires great ……… to teach and handle little children who are restless.
(A) patience
(B) attitude
(C) determination
(D) knowledge
(E) aptitude
Ans : (A)

27. The researchers will ……… some of the causes of increasing poverty in the state.
(A) fund
(B) investigate
(C) promote
(D) circulate
(E) collaborate
Ans : (B)

28. I usually perform ……… when nobody is watching me.
(A) alone
(B) good
(C) better
(D) hard
(E) nervously
Ans : (C)

29. It was ……… to everyone that the minister had been drinking.
(A) observed
(B) known
(C) discovered
(D) realised
(E) unfortunate
Ans : (A)

30. I would rather stay indoors ……… the rain stops.
(A) so
(B) waiting
(C) until
(D) usually
(E) then
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 31–35) In each question below four words which are lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D) have been printed, of which, one word may be wrongly spelt. The letter of that word is the answer. If all the four words are correctly spelt, mark (E) i.e. ‘All Correct’ as the answer.

31. (A) Maintain
(B) Thrust
(C) Possible
(D) Pioneer
(E) All Correct
Ans : (E)

32. (A) Nessessary
(B) Board
(C) Possession
(D) Assemble
(E) All Correct
Ans : (A)

33. (A) Cherish
(B) Inocent
(C) Deceive
(D) Doubt
(E) All Correct
Ans : (B)

34. (A) Invesment
(B) Terrain
(C) Futile
(D) Procession
(E) All Correct
Ans : (A)

35. (A) Torture
(B) Accommodate
(C) Business
(D) Intution
(E) All Correct
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 36–40) Rearrange the following six sentences (a), (b), (c), (d), (e) and (f) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(a) “It is possible” said the courtier pensively.
(b) “But I don’t understand how he can be the noblest.”
(c) The Emperor asked one of his courtier’s if it was possible for a man to be the ‘lowest’ and the ‘noblest’ at the same time.
(d) “He has been given the honour of an audience with the Emperor. That makes him the noblest among all beggars.” said the courtier.
(e) The courtier returned with a beggar. “He is the lowest among your Subjects” he said to the Emperor.
(f) The Emperor then requested that such a person be brought to him.

36. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) c
(B) d
(C) f
(D) a
(E) e
Ans : (A)

37. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) b
(B) c
(C) e
(D) a
(E) f
Ans : (E)

38. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) a
(B) e
(C) b
(D) f
(E) d
Ans : (C)

39. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) a
(B) d
(C) c
(D) b
(E) e
Ans : (A)

40. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) f
(B) b
(C) c
(D) e
(E) d
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 41–50) In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the most appropriate word in each case.

Rabbits are among the most …(41)… of all animals. The rabbits of a colony, once had a …(42)… to discuss this …(43)… of theirs. They came to the …(44)… that as their timidity would never leave them, they were condemned to a miserable existence and it would be better to drown themselves and end their …(45)… once and for all. Accordingly, they began to move towards a large lake.

When the frogs in the lake saw a large number of rabbits …(46)…, they were filled with …(47)… and made for the deepest part of the lake. Seeing this, the …(48)… of the rabbits stopped and said to his fellow-creatures : “It is true we are timid, but here are animals more timid than us. There is still some …(49)… for us. Let us all go back to our homes,” and the …(50)… of rabbits headed back to their colony.

41. (A) skilled
(B) calm
(C) expensive
(D) generous
(E) timid
Ans : (E)

42. (A) meeting
(B) lecture
(C) assembly
(D) festival
(E) contest
Ans : (A)

43. (A) tradition
(B) gene
(C) trait
(D) virtue
(E) sentiment
Ans : (D)

44. (A) decision
(B) finale
(C) point
(D) solution
(E) conclusion
Ans : (E)

45. (A) torture
(B) misery
(C) bad luck
(D) life
(E) species
Ans : (B)

46. (A) attending
(B) retreating
(C) approaching
(D) swimming
(E) sulking
Ans : (C)

47. (A) sympathy
(B) fear
(C) empathy
(D) gratitude
(E) glee
Ans : (B)

48. (A) group
(B) army
(C) leader
(D) captain
(E) fellow
Ans : (C)

49. (A) ray
(B) refuge
(C) doubt
(D) solution
(E) hope
Ans : (E)

50. (A) multiple
(B) manifold
(C) leader
(D) herd
(E) calmest
Ans : (D)

Supreme Court appoints SIT

The Supreme Court on Monday appointed a high-level Special Investigation Team (SIT) headed by former apex court judge B.P. Jeevan Reddy to monitor the investigation and the steps being taken to bring back black money stashed away in foreign banks.

Besides Justice Reddy, who will be the chairman of the SIT, the apex court also appointed its former judge, Justice M.B. Shah as the vice-chairman of the panel.

A bench comprising Justices B. Sudershan Reddy and S.S. Nijjar directed that the High-Level Committee (HLC) constituted by the government to look into the issue of black money would “forthwith” be a part of the SIT.

The bench also directed the government to disclose the names of all the persons who have been issued show cause notices by the authorities in connection with the probe into the black money issue.

The court, however, made it clear that the authorities would not disclose the names of those who have not been investigated in connection with deposits made in foreign banks including Liechtenstein bank.

The court passed the order on a petition filed by eminent jurist Ram Jethmalani and others seeking directions to the government to track black money stashed away abroad and bring it back.

The apex court directed the government to issue notification forthwith regarding the appointment of SIT and ordered that government machinery to cooperate with it.

The bench, while passing the order, made some hard-hitting observation against the Centre for its “failure” to take proper action against people who have illegally stashed away money in foreign banks.

Observing the phenomenon of black money as “extremely dangerous to the country”, the court said the quantum of money in foreign banks is a rough measure of “weakness” and “softness” of the nation. 

Justifying its decision to constitute the SIT, the bench said that in previous cases also the court has been passing such orders to fulfil its constitutional obligation.

The court also said that it’s not possible for it to be involved in day-to-day investigations in the case as the resources at its disposal were scarce.

The bench said the issue of black money has to be taken with a degree of seriousness and the state is primarily responsible to make all efforts to bring back into the country such wealth and punish people who have stashed away money in foreign banks.

The court observed that unaccounted money going to foreign banks from the country was a reflection of incapacity of its authorities to collect taxes which is their constitutional obligation.

“These incapacities go to the very heart of ungovernance,” the bench observed, adding the wealth going to foreign banks might cause substantial damage to the country as it could be used for unlawful activities.

During earlier hearing, the government had told the court that it had constituted HLC headed by the Revenue Secretary. It included directors of CBI, Intelligence Bureau, Enforcement Directorate, Chairman of CBDT, Director General of Revenue Intelligence, Director General of Narcotics Control, Director of Foreign Intelligence Office (FIO) and Joint Secretary of Foreign Trade.

The functioning of the HLC was questioned by the apex court during the hearing on May 12.

The bench had expressed surprise on why charge sheet filed by the ED against Hasan Ali Khan in a money laundering case was not placed before the HLC which was appointed by the government to counter the plea for setting up of SIT to monitor the probe.

Justice Jeevan Reddy, who will head the SIT, had been elevated to the apex court in October 1991 and retired in March 1997.

After his retirement, he was appointed chairman of the 15th Law Commission of India. He continued as chairman of the 16th Law Commission of India but resigned in 2001.

Justice Reddy has also headed several key sub-panels of the National Commission to Review Working of the Constitution (NCRWC), set up under the chairpersonship of former Chief Justice of India M.N. Venkatachaliah. The NCRWC was established by the erstwhile Vajpayee-led National Democratic Alliance government in February 2000 to report on various anomalies existing in law and the Constitution.

Justice M.B. Shah, who will form part of the panel, had become an apex court judge in December 1998 and retired in September 2003.

Thailand to have first woman Prime Minister

 
The Pheu Thai Party led by the sister of ousted fugitive former premier Thaksin Shinawatraon Sunday swept the general elections in Thailand, paving the way for its leader Yingluck Shinawatra to be the country's first woman prime minister.

Thai Prime Minister Abhisit Vejjajiva conceded that Yingluck had won the nation's election and congratulated her for being the first female Prime Minister.

Yingluck, 44, the telegenic youngest sister of former premier and telecoms billionaire Thaksin Shinawatra, who is on a self imposed exile in Dubai and has been out of Thailand since the coup five years ago when he was ousted.

Yingluck dubbed as Thaksin's political proxy will be the 28th prime minister of the country, which has a history of military coups and political instability.

With over 90 per cent of votes counted, Puea Thai had won 260 seats out of 500.

It is well ahead of the Democrats with 163, according to the Election Commission. 

The general elations were the first major electoral test for the elite-backed government since mass demonstrations by Thaksin's "Red Shirt" supporters last year paralysed Bangkok and unleashed the worst political violence in decades.

The Pheu Thai party is allied with Thaksin Shinawatra, who was ousted as prime minister the 2006 military coup.

Tensions between the Democratic Party and the Pheu Thai party erupted last year, with protests against Abhisit's government leading to a military crackdown resulting in 90 deaths and hundreds injured.

Abhisit became the prime minister after he was put in office in 2008 by a parliamentary vote after the court dissolved the previous pro-Thaksin ruling party.

 

Pradeep Kumar to be the New CVC

Defence Secretary Pradeep Kumar was unanimously chosen the next Central Vigilance Commissioner (CVC), four months after the Supreme Court had quashed the appointment of P.J. Thomas to the post.

Although there is no official announcement made yet, sources said Mr. Pradeep Kumar, who retires as Defence Secretary on July 31, was chosen by consensus by a panel comprising Prime Minister Manmohan Singh, Home Minister P. Chidambaram and Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha Sushma Swaraj.

Mr. Pradeep Kumar, who will be 62 in September, is a Haryana cadre IAS officer of the 1972 batch. He was Secretary, Defence Production, before becoming the Defence Secretary. He will have a three year term as he will have to demit office on attaining age of 65 under the CVC Act.

Ms. Sushma Swaraj, who had opposed in writing the appointment of Thomas as CVC, had no objection to Mr. Kumar’s candidature.

The Supreme Court had on March 3 set aside the appointment of Thomas as Central Vigilance Commissioner and also laid down stringent guidelines for future appointments of CVC.

Since the high-powered committee did not consider the pending charge sheet against Thomas in the palmolein import scam, the apex court on September 3, 2010 had termed the recommendation for appointment of Thomas as CVC is “illegal”.

A list of probable candidates was prepared by the Department of Personnel and Training which placed it before the selection panel.

Those whose names figured in the initial list included Defence Secretary Pradeep Kumar, former Home Secretary G.K. Pillai, former Chemicals and Fertilisers Secretary Bijoy Chatterjee, former Secretary, Legislative Affairs V.K. Bhasin, former Urban Development Secretary M. Ramachandran and Personnel Secretary Alka Sirohi.

Bank of Maharashtra Probationary Officer Exam., 2010

English Language (Exam Held on 19-12-2010)

Directions—(Q. 1–10) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

When sound …(1)…, the world of cinema, mime made a gracious exit. …(2)… then, it stood proudly as a performing art in itself, independent and …(3)… in style, approach, treatment and performance not matched however, by …(4)… acceptance. During the silent era, actors in silent films had to …(5)… totally on mime as the only way of …(6)… their emotions, expressions, incidents, events and interactions between and among characters. German Expressionist cinema, the acting of classic performers like Charlie Chaplin, Harold Lloyd and Buster Keaton used mime they had …(7)… as part of their theatrical …(8)… in their films with great effect. A French mime artist once said, “Mime is the poetry of silence.” But once talking …(9)… entered the scenario, mime was …(10)… ever used in films, even through a character introduced as a mime artist.

1. (A) entered
(B) came
(C) saw
(D) became
(E) featured
Ans : (A)

2. (A) From
(B) So
(C) Since
(D) By
(E) Until
Ans : (C)

3. (A) single
(B) fair
(C) dependent
(D) unique
(E) treacherous
Ans : (D)


4. (A) drama
(B) conclusion
(C) opinion
(D) judgement
(E) popular
Ans : (E)

5. (A) portray
(B) act
(C) rely
(D) depict
(E) earn
Ans : (C)

6. (A) mentioning
(B) designing
(C) stimulating
(D) expressing
(E) considering
Ans : (D)

7. (A) worked
(B) learnt
(C) qualified
(D) bought
(E) invested
Ans : (B)

8. (A) experience
(B) showings
(C) vision
(D) distance
(E) story
Ans : (A)

9. (A) toys
(B) worlds
(C) films
(D) people
(E) mimes
Ans : (C)

10. (A) and
(B) hardly
(C) then
(D) thus
(E) for
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 11–15) Rearrange the following five sentences (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(a) A small wooden nest box is all it has taken to rekindle all the romance of bringing sparrows and other birds back into our cities and halt them from fading into the past like a forgotten folktale.
(b) There is something wrong with a city that remains unperturbed even as its birds desert it.
(c) Thankfully, the situation is not as hopeless as it seems.
(d) Much as we try to defend the seemingly irreversible modern life of these cities, we can’t stop our hearts from crying when we realize that our rapidly degenerating urban eco-system isn’t generous enough to let these delicate winged creatures build tiny little nests in its nooks and crannies, sit in solitude, and rear offspring.
(e) And this desertion seems to be true with most metros in India where house sparrows have almost become a thing of the past.

11. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (a)
(B) (b)
(C) (c)
(D) (d)
(E) (e)
Ans : (B)

12. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (e)
(B) (d)
(C) (c)
(D) (b)
(E) (a)
Ans : (A)

13. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (a)
(B) (b)
(C) (c)
(D) (d)
(E) (e)
Ans : (D)

14. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (e)
(B) (d)
(C) (c)
(D) (b)
(E) (a)
Ans : (C)

15. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (a)
(B) (b)
(C) (c)
(D) (d)
(E) (e)
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 16–20) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark (E) as the answer.

16. After keeping a ten-year-old in detention for around six days, the police finally registered a case of fraud against the child and sent him to jail.
(A) has finally register
(B) final registered
(C) is finally registration
(D) is final registering
(E) No correction required
Ans : (E)

17. Whichever reasons, there is no denying the changing attitudes to traditions as well as livelihoods, and by implication to the environment as well.
(A) Whichever the reasoning
(B) Whichever reasoned
(C) Whatever reasoning
(D) Whatever the reasons
(E) No correction required
Ans : (D)

18. Visiting the village is like be transported into some other century.
(A) alike to transport
(B) like being transported
(C) likely to be transporting
(D) likes transport
(E) No correction required
Ans : (B)

19. Environmentalists has pay little heed to the ‘softer’ aspects of the movement, of which the need to change our culture is one of the most important.
(A) is paying little heed
(B) are paying little heeding
(C) has paid little heeds
(D) have paid little heed
(E) No correction required
Ans : (D)

20. Even in a changing world, we cannot wishes away the Indian nation and replace it with a world government overnight.
(A) Cannot wish away
(B) Can never wishing out
(C) Cannot wish out
(D) Never wishes out
(E) No correction required
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 21–25) Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

21. We can feel morally ……… when someone insults us – as long as we do not ……… upon those feelings by burning down houses.
(A) challenged, stand
(B) outraged, act
(C) bound, build
(D) obliged, think
(E) violated, harp
Ans : (B)

22. Human beings are biological ………, they need to be grounded in time and place or else they come ……….
(A) things, forward
(B) souls, back
(C) organisms, unhinged
(D) features, undone
(E) creatures, again
Ans : (E)

23. ……… their golden years of love and togetherness, the couple ……… all their guests at their fiftieth wedding anniversary.
(A) Celebrating, welcomed
(B) Remembering, asked
(C) Rejoicing, promised
(D) Commemorating, brought
(E) Observing, greeted
Ans : (A)

24. Since it does not have the …… to do anything beyond sending out notices, the corporation has now decided to take steps to attach movable properties such as cars so that people take the notices more ……….
(A) authority, appropriately
(B) influence, justly
(C) guts, sincerely
(D) pressure, gravely
(E) power, seriously
Ans : (E)

25. A new law has been passed stating that no actor would be allowed to shoot beyond twelve hours in a day and those who ……… this norm would henceforth be ……… for it.
(A) followed, punished
(B) accompanied, reprimanded
(C) flouted - penalized
(D) defied, applauded
(E) obeyed, disciplined
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 26–35) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error; the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

26. It is only now, (A) / sixty years after independence, that (B) / India is learning how to negotiating (C) / the competing demands of power and justice. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

27. The graceful folk dance had performed (A) / so beautifully by a dance group that nobody (B) / seemed to notice that (C) / the show was two-and-a-half hours long ! (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

28. The actor, that was (A) / busy meeting and greeting people, (B) / made sure that this day became (C) / an extra special one for his parents. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

29. Farmhouse owners in the city, (A) / who were till now paid property tax (B) / for only the built-up area of the plot, will soon (C) / have to pay tax to the government for vacant land also. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

30. A time sheet diary is to be (A) / maintained by every actor, since (B) / producers constantly complain that they are (C) / forced shooting for late hours because actors come very late. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

31. Injected into the blood, (A) / tiny bubbles of gas can ease (B) / the passage of vital stroke drugs into the brain, (C) / helping in prevent damage to the grey matter. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

32. Since universities have more (A) / space on their campuses, they (B) / have been asked to open fire detection control rooms (C) / as a mandatory measure. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

33. District police arrested (A) / a gang of notorious robbers (B) / who were planning to strike at (C) / a house in the vicinity. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

34. Households across the State are either opting for (A) / a more modest lifestyle or compromising on (B) / the nutritional value of their food in efforts to negate (C) / the price rise of essential commodities, cereals, vegetables and fruits. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

35. The fire that gutted (A) / years for research in the chemistry and biochemistry labs (B) / of the University building was (C) / due to short circuit. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 36–50) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

In February 2010 the Medical Council of India announced a major change in the regulation governing the establishment of medical colleges. With this change, corporate entities were permitted to open medical colleges. The new regulation also carried the following warning : “permission shall be withdrawn if the colleges resort to commercialization”. Since the regulation does not elaborate on what constitutes “resorting to commercialization”, this will presumably be a matter left to the discretion of the Government.

A basic requirement for a new medical college is a pre-existing hospital that will serve as a teaching hospital. Corporate entities have hospitals in the major metros and that is where they will have to locate medical colleges. The earlier mandated land requirement for a medical college campus, a minimum of 25 acres of contiguous land, cannot be fulfilled in the metros. Not surprisingly, yet another tweak has been made in the regulation, prescribing 10 acres as the new minimum campus size for 9 cities including the main metros. With this, the stage is set for corporate entities to enter the medical education market.

Until now, medical education in India has been projected as a not-forprofit activity to be organised for the public good. While private bodies can run medical colleges, these can only be societies or trusts, legally non-profit organizations. In opening the door to corporate colleges, thus, a major policy change has been effected without changing the law or even a discussion in Parliament, but by simply getting a compliant MCI to change the regulation on establishment of medical colleges. This and other changes have been justified in the name of addressing the shortage of doctors. At the same time, over 50 existing medical colleges, including 15 run by the government, have been prohibited from admitting students in 2010 for having failed to meet the basic standards prescribed. Ninety per cent of these colleges have come up in the last 5 years. Particularly shocking is the phenomenon of government colleges falling short of standards approved by the Government. Why are state government institutions not able to meet the requirements that have been approved by the central government ? A severe problem faced by government-run institutions is attracting and retaining teaching faculty, and this is likely to be among the major reasons for these colleges failing to satisfy the MCI norms. The crisis building up on the faculty front has been flagged by various commissions looking into problems of medical education over the years.

An indicator of the crisis is the attempt to conjure up faculty when MCI carries out inspections of new colleges, one of its regulatory functions. Judging by news reports, the practice of presenting fake faculty – students or private medical practitioners hired for the day – during MCI inspections in private colleges is common. What is interesting is that even government colleges are adopting unscrupulous methods. Another indicator is the extraordinary scheme, verging on the ridiculous that is being put in place by the MCI to make inspections ‘foolproof’. Faculty in all medical colleges are to be issued an RFID-based smart card by the MCI with a unique Faculty Number. The card, it is argued, will eliminate the possibility of a teacher being shown on the faculty of more than one college and establish if the qualifications of a teacher are genuine. In the future, it is projected that biometric RFID readers will be installed in the colleges that will enable a Faculty Identification, Tracking and Monitoring System to monitor faculty from within the college and even remotely from MCI headquarters.

The picture above does not even start to reveal the true and pathetic situation of medical care especially in rural India. Only a fraction of the doctors and nursing professionals serve rural areas where 70 per cent of our population lives. The Health Ministry, with the help of the MCI, has been active in proposing yet another ‘innovative’ solution to the problem of lack of doctors in the rural areas. The proposal is for a three-and-a-half year course to obtain the degree of Bachelor of Rural Medicine and Surgery (BRMS). Only rural candidates would be able to join this course. The study and training would happen at two different levels – Community Health Centers for 18 months, and sub-divisional hospitals for a further period of 2 years – and be conducted by retired professors. After completion of training, they would only be able to serve in their own state in district hospitals, community health centres, and primary health centres.

The BRMS proposal has invited sharp criticism from some doctors’ organizations on the grounds that it is discriminatory to have two different standards of health care – one for urban and the other for rural areas, and that the health care provided by such graduates will be compromised. At the other end is the opinion expressed by some that “something is better than nothing”, that since doctors do not want to serve in rural areas, the government may as well create a new cadre of medics who will be obliged to serve there. The debate will surely pick up after the government formally lays out its plans. What is apparent is that neither this proposal nor the various stopgap measures adopted so far address the root of the problem of health care.
The far larger issue is government policy, the low priority attached by the government to the social sector as a whole and the health sector in particular, evidenced in the paltry allocations for maintaining and upgrading medical infrastructure and medical education and for looking after precious human resources.

36. What solution is being offered by the Health Ministry for the shortage of doctors in rural areas ?
(A) Increase the number of government run hospitals in the rural areas thereby increasing the number of doctors catering to the people in these regions.
(B) Make it mandatory for doctors serving in the urban areas to serve in the rural areas for a specific number of years
(C) Set up increasing number of community health centres in rural areas
(D) Hire retired professors of medicine to offer medical help to people living in the rural areas till the time more doctors are appointed
(E) Run a separate medical course for three and a half years which can be taken up only by rural candidates who would ultimately serve in the rural areas
Ans : (E)

37. Why have some existing medical colleges been prohibited from admitting students ?
(A) As these have adopted corrupt practices and have been taking huge donations from their students
(B) As all these colleges were illegally set up and were not approved by the government in the first place
(C) As the course offered by these colleges is not in line with the course offered by the government run colleges
(D) As these have failed to meet the norms set by the central government for running the college
(E) As there are absolutely no faculty members left in these colleges to teach students
Ans : (D)

38. Which of the following is/are the change/s announced by the MCI in the regulation governing the establishment of medical college?
(a) Allowing the commercialization of medical colleges.
(b) Reducing the earlier mandated land requirement for a medical college campus for metros.
(c) Allowing corporate bodies to open medical colleges.
(A) Only (b)
(B) Only (a) and (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) Only (b) and (c)
(E) All (a), (b) and (c) are true
Ans : (D)

39. Which of the following are the different opinions regarding the BRMS proposal ?
(a) At least a small step has been taken to improve the healthcare facilities in the rural areas through this proposal.
(b) There should be uniform healthcare facilities available for people living in both rural and urban area
(c) The healthcare providers through this proposal would not be up to the mark.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (a) and (b)
(C) Only (b) and (c)
(D) Only (b)
(E) All (a), (b) and (c)
Ans : (C)

40. Which of the following is possibly the most appropriate title for the passage ?
(A) Healthcare in India – The Questionable Changes
(B) Medical Centres in Rural India
(C) Commercialization of Medical Education in India
(D) The Medical Council of India
(E) The BRMS Proposal – The Way Out for Rural India
Ans : (A)

41. What is one of the major problems faced by the government–run medical institutions ?
(A) Dearth of land required for the setting up of medical institutions
(B) Lack of funds for running the colleges
(C) Dearth of teaching faculty
(D) Excessive competition from colleges run by corporate bodies
(E) Dearth of students opting for these colleges
Ans : (C)

42. What is the idea behind the MCI putting in place the RFID-based smart card ?
(a) To monitor and track faculty from MCI headquarters in the future.
(b) To put a stop to the practice of colleges of presenting fake faculty members.
(c) To verify the authenticity of faculty member qualifications.
(A) Only (a) and (b)
(B) All (a), (b) and (c)
(C) Only (c)
(D) Only (b) and (c)
(E) Only (b)
Ans : (B)

43. What is the author’s main intention behind writing this passage ?
(A) To make the general public aware of the healthcare facilities available in India
(B) To bring to light the problems faced by the healthcare sector in India despite changes suggested and goad the government into attaching priority to the sector
(C) To bring to light the problems faced by rural people in terms of healthcare facilities and thus exhort urban doctors to serve in the rural areas
(D) To make the general public aware of the benefits arising from the changes brought about by the MCI in the healthcare sector
(E) To urge the corporate bodies to look into the matter of healthcare facilities in the rural areas
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 44–47) Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

44. FLAGGED
(A) highlighted
(B) stopped
(C) bannered
(D) caused
(E) hoisted
Ans : (A)

45. FALLING SHORT
(A) remaining tiny
(B) limiting
(C) stumbling upon
(D) just satisfying
(E) not meeting
Ans : (E)

46. PERMITTED
(A) forbidden
(B) pressed
(C) allowed
(D) sent
(E) forced
Ans : (C)

47. SHOCKING
(A) wicked
(B) pleasing
(C) appalling
(D) electrifying
(E) scandalous
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 48–50) Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning to the word/ group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

48. UNSCRUPULOUS
(A) corrupt
(B) even
(C) constant
(D) honest
(E) measured
Ans : (D)

49. SHARP
(A) mild
(B) thin
(C) blunt
(D) rounded
(E) pointed
Ans : (D)

50. COMPLIANT
(A) fixed
(B) unyielding
(C) stagnant
(D) obedient
(E) negative
Ans : (B)

SATISH DHAWAV SPACE CENTRE SHAR RECRUITMENT

SSC KKR RECRUITMENT

 

STAFF SELECTION COMMISSION

KARNATAKA-KERALA REGION

(ADVERTISEMENT NO.KKR-02/2011)

Category No.1/BG:

Name of the Post & Department: Surveillance Assistants in Narcotics Control Bureau, Ministry of Home Affairs.

Vacancy:  22 – UR, 10 – OBC, 05 – SC and 03 - ST (The post is identified not suitable for PH candidates)

Pay Scale: Rs.5200-20200/-with Grade Pay of Rs.2400/- (General Central Services Group ‘C’, Non Gazetted, Non-Ministerial).

Age Limit: Not exceeding 27 years (Relaxable up to 40 years to Central Government civilian employees in accordance with instructions or orders issued by the Central Government)

EQ: Three years Diploma or Degree in Electronics or Communication or Telecommunication Engineering or Computer Science or Information Technology from a recognized Institute or University

Category No.2/BG:

Name of the Post & Department: Technical Assistant in Directorate of Cashew nut and Cocoa Development, Ministry of Agriculture.

Vacancy: 01-UR & 01 - OBC (The post is identified not suitable for PH candidates)

Pay Scale: Rs.5200-20200/-with Grade Pay of Rs.2800/- (Group ‘C’, Non-Gazetted, Non-Ministerial).

Age Limit: Not exceeding 30 years (No age relaxation for SC/ST candidates. Relaxable by 05 years for Central Government Civilian servants in accordance with instructions issued by the Central Government. Relaxable up to 40 years for Departmental candidates)

EQ: Graduate in Agriculture/Economics/Mathematics OR Statistics with three years experience of noting and drafting in Technical matters preferably relating to Cashew nut.

Category No.3/BG:

Name of the Post & Department: Instructor (Seamanship & Navigation) in Central Institute of Fisheries Nautical and Engineering (CIFNET), Ministry of Agriculture.

Vacancy: 01-OBC (The post is identified not suitable for PH candidates)

Pay Scale: Rs.9300-34800/-with Grade Pay of Rs.4200/- (General Central Service Group ‘B’, Non Gazetted, Non-Ministerial).

Age Limit: Not exceeding 30 years (No age relaxation for SC/ST candidates. Relaxable by 05 years for Central Government Civilian servants in accordance with instructions issued by the Central Government.)

EQ: (i) Bachelor’s degree from recognized university or Institute.

(ii) Certificate of Competency as Skipper Fishing Vessel issued by the Mercantile Marine Department      

              and

(iii) One year experience on board a fishing vessel

     

OR.

(i)    Bachelors Degree in Fishery Science(Nautical Science) from a recognized University or institute and

(ii)  Two years experience in field of fisheries on board a fishing vessel or in fisheries development activities.

Category No.4/BG:

Name of the Post & Department: Bosun (Certified) in Central Institute of Fisheries Nautical and Engineering (CIFNET), Ministry of Agriculture.

Vacancy: 01- UR (The post is identified not suitable for PH candidates)

Pay Scale: Rs.9300-34800/-with Grade Pay of Rs.4200/- (General Central Service Group ‘B’, Non Gazetted, Non-Ministerial).

Age Limit: Not exceeding 30 years (No age relaxation for OBC/SC/ST candidates. Relaxable up to 40 years for Government civilian employees who are in the same line or allied cadres and who have rendered not less than three years continous service in the same department)

EQ: (i) 12th Standard pass or equivalent.

(ii) Possession of a Certificate of Competency as Mate Fishing Vessel issued by the Mercantile Marine Department.
MODE OF SELECTION: Candidates fulfilling, the minimum prescribed qualifications will be shorlisted on the basis of their educational qualifications, academic records, percentage of marks etc, or through a screening test at the discretion of the Commission. Candidates, thus, selected may be required to undergo a written proficiency test wherever applicable/required or considered necessary by the Commission at its discretion.

The Commission holds the discretion to fix different qualifying standards for different categories in the proficiency test wherever applicable. Candidates qualified on the basis of merit of proficiency test if any held, would be required to appear at the Interview. Final select list would be prepared in order of merit as disclosed by the aggregate marks (marks of Proficiency Test wherever applicable and Interview/skill test as the case may be) finally awarded to each candidate taking into account the number of vacancies advertised and in that order so many candidates as are found suitable by the Commission would be recommended.

Provided further that SC/ST and OBC candidates who are selected on their own merit without relaxed standards along with candidates belonging to other communities will not be adjusted against the reserved share of vacancies.

The reserved vacancies will be  filled up separately from amongst the eligible SCs, STs and OBCs which will thus comprise SC, ST and OBC candidates who are lower in merit than the last general candidate on merit list of unreserved category but otherwise found suitable for appointment even by relaxed standards.

HOW TO APPLY:  Applications must be submitted in the format published in the Employment News/Rozgar Samachar dated 25.6.2011 ­­­The application form is available on the Regional Office website http://ssckkr.kar.nic.in. The applications should be submitted to the Regional Director as per the address given in the notice.

Note(1) : Applications submitted on a format which is not exactly the same as published in the advertisement  are liable to be rejected summarily.

Note (2): The Commission may consider conducting the screening test or Proficiency test wherever applicable for all the post(s) on the same date or different date(s) at its discretion. 

Muthoot Finance Limited Probationary officers Recruitment

Muthoot Finance Limited has announced recruitment for 2000 Probationary officers (PO)

 Position – Vacancies:

Probationary Officer – 2000 posts (in Karnataka,Tamil Nadu,Andhra Pradesh & Goa)

 Dates: Last date of online application: 15.7.2011

Written test: announced later

 Eligibility: Those looking to apply for PO jobs in Muthoot finance,

* Age not higher than 25yrs as on 31.5.2011

* Must be a graduate (UG or PG) with aggregate 60% marks (any degree)

  The selection for Muthoot finance PO recruitment will be through Written Test & Interview.The objective type exam for 200 marks is to be conducted at various centres across India & eligible applicants would be informed through email/post about the dates.

 Fees: No fee has been specified

 Interested candidates can read the complete notification of Muthoot Finance PO recruitment & proceed to apply online directly at their website

Third UIDIA’s Conference of Ecosystem Partners

The Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) held on June 30 at New Delhi, its third conference of ecosystem partners of the project, for the northern region. The event was attended by UIDAI’s state and central registrars, enrolment agencies which capture resident’s demographic and biometric data as well as officials from the authority.

The conference opened by UIDAI Director General and Mission Director, Sh. Ram Sevak Sharma who emphasised the importance of data quality in ensuring uniqueness of IDs in his opening address. “Quality by design, is something we must aspire to”, said Mr. Sharma. “All efforts must be made to contribute towards ensuring a near zero error situation”. He also added that, resident comfort during the enrolment process is important to the Authority. He urged all partners to ensure basic conveniences for residents, at the enrolment centres.

The conference aimed at discussing the progress of the Aadhaar project in the Northern region which is managed by three regional offices in Delhi, Lucknow and Chandigarh that oversee operations covering over 44 crore residents. A discussion was held with the various ecosystem partners on the operational issues in the implementation of the Aadhaar project.

As the UIDAI has recently issued its 10 millionth Aadhaar, Deputy Director General UIDAI, Mrs. Sujata Chaturvedi spoke about how till now the thrust to the program had come from the southern states and it was early days yet for the programme in the northern states. UIDAI has been on track in ramping-up its operations since it issued the first Aadhaar number in September 2010 in the Nandurbar district of Maharashtra. From 4,000 enrolments per day it has scaled up to over 4 lakh enrolments per day and this figure will likely increase to 10 lakh per day by October 2011.

Deputy Director General for the Lucknow region, Dr. AB Pandey informed the gathering that India’s most populous state Uttar Pradesh will undertake Aadhaar enrolments as a stand alone process and not through any of its departments as has been the case in many other states. He also emphasised the need for close cooperation between the Authority and its Registrars and the enrolment agencies engaged by them to ensure the smooth implementation of this mammoth project which aims to enrol every resident of the country and give them a 12 digit unique ID- Aadhaar.

The conference gave an opportunity to all partners to share their experiences from the field and discuss solutions and best practices to address shared concerns. The UIDAI also talked about the technology tools and solutions developed by its teams in response to challenges faced on the ground. A new version of the enrolment client, which has been modified taking into account feedback from registrars and enrolment agencies, was also presented at the conference.

In his closing remarks, UIDAI Chairman, Sh. Nandan Nilekani was optimistic that all the learning of the project thus far will provide the impetus for forging ahead with enrolments in the future, especially in the northern region. He encouraged all partners to absorb the best practices discussed today and apply them to address the challenges of scale and speed to achieve the 10 million Aadhaars per day target whilst maintaining the stringent quality standards of the project. He ended by saying that Aadhaar is an empowering tool that has innumerable applications and will make a difference in the daily lives of millions of people, once authentication for delivery of a number of services rolls out in the coming months.