General Studies
(Exam held on: 25-03-2012)
1. During which decade did the population record a negative growth rate in India
a) 1921-31
b) 1911-21
c) 1941-51
d) 1931-41
HINT: During the decade 1911-21, a negative population growth rate of -2.91 per cent has been recorded due to outbreak of epidemic (plague) and natural calamities.
2. Which Central Government Agency is responsible for the mapping and exploration of minerals?
a) The Geological Survey of India
b) Surveyor General of India
c) National Mineral Development Corporation Ltd.
d) Indian Bureau of Mines
3. What is Gomia in Bihar famous for:
a) Coal Fields
b) Manganese Mines
c) Fertilizer Plant
d) Explosive Factory
HINT: Jharkhand’s Biggest explosives factory situated at Gomia.
4. SEBI is a
a) Statutory body
b) Advisory body
c) Constitutional body
d) Non-statutory body
HINT: Initially SEBI was a non statutory body without any statutory power. However in 1995, the SEBI was given additional statutory power by the Government of India through an amendment to the securities and Exchange Board of India Act 1992. In April, 1998 the SEBI was constituted as the regulator of capital market in India under a resolution of the Government of India.
5. Economic Planning is in :
a) Union List
b) State List
c) Concurrent List
d) Not any specific list
6. Lahiri Commission was associated with
a) Indsutrial sickness
b) Minimum support prices of agriculture products
c) Price structure of edible oils
d) Handicraft export
7. “Open Market Operation” is a part of
a) Income Policy
b) Fiscal Policy
c) Credit Policy
d) Labour Policy
8. Which of the following is used for the measurement of distribution of income?
a) Laffer Cureve
b) Engel’s Law
c) Gini Lorenz Curve
d) Phillip Curve
9. Automatic route to FDI implies that a foreign investor bring in his capital
1. Without the approval of the FIPB
2. By informing the RBI within one month of bringing in his investments
3. By informing both the FIPB and RBI within one month of bringing in his/her investment
4. By prior permission of the RBI
Select the correct answer from the above
a) 2 and 3
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 2
d) 2 and 3
10. In the context of the Indian Economy consider the following pairs:
Term Most appropriate description
1. Melt Down - Fall in Stock Prices
2. Recession - Fall in Growth Rate
3. Slow Down - Fall in GDP
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
11. In India which of the following is regulated by the Forward Markets Comission?
a) Currency future trading
b) Commodities future trading
c) Equity futures trading
d) Both Commodities futures and financial futures trading
12. Union Government has announced New Agriculture Policy in July 28, 2000. New Agriculturre
Policy has been described as ‘Rainbow Revolution’ which includes :
a) Green (Food Grain Production)
b) Yellow (Oil Seeds)
c) Blue (Fisheries)
d) It would cover all aspects of the farm sector
13. Sensitive sector as defined by RBI includes:
a) Capital market
b) Real Estate
c) Commodities
d) All the above
14. The RBI is the apex body of Indian Financial System, which of the following functions are
performed by the RBI?
1. Monitoring money supply in the Economy
2. Issues currency other than coins and one Rupees note.
3. Functions as Bankers Bank
4. Works as banker to the Government
Select the Code:
a) 1 & 2 are correct
b) 1, 2 & 3 are correct
c) 2, 3 & 4 are correct
d) All of above are correct
15. Aam Admi Bima Yojana is an insurance scheme for rural landless household introduced by:
a) National Insurance
b) Life Insurance Co.
c) UTI
d) ICICI Life Prudential Co.
16. In India those farmers are called ‘Marginal Farmers’ who hold land upto:
a) 1 hectare
b) 2 hectare
c) 3 hectare
d) 4 hectare
HINT: In India, a Marginal Farmer means a cultivator with an unirrigated land holding upto one hectare or irrigated land holding upto half hectare.
17. Which one of the following is a measurement of central tendency?
a) Median
b) Standard Deviation
c) Mean Deviation
d) Variance
18. Which one of the following is NOT a measurement of location?
a) Median
b) Mode
c) Range
d) Mean
19. Combustion of a candle is
a) Physical change
b) Reduction reaction
c) Endothermic reaction
d) Exothermic reaction
20. Pure water is obtained from the sea water by :
a) Filteration
b) Distillation
c) Evaporation
d) All the above
21. The method that cannot be used for removing permanent hardness of water is:
a) Adding Sodium Carbonate
b) Disitillation
c) Adding caustic soda
d) Boiling
22. Heavy Water :
a) Contains more dissolved air
b) Contains more dissolved minerals
c) Contains deuterium in place of hydrogen
d) Contains organic impurities
HINT: Heavy water (deuterium oxide: D2O) contains deuterium, an isotope of hydrogen with a proton and a neutron for each deuterium atom.
23. “Fixation of Nitrogen” implies
a) The liquification of nitrogen
b) The conversion of atmospheric nitrogen into usefull compounds
c) The conversion of nitrogen into amines
d) The solidification of nitrogen gas into the atmosphere
HINT: The energy from lightning causes nitrogen (N2) and water (H2O) to combine to form ammonia (NH3) and nitrates (NO3). Precipitation carries the ammonia and nitrates to the ground, where they can be assimilated by plants.
24. The pH value of the solution obtained by complete neutralization of hydrochloric and sodium
hydroxide solution will be :
a) Exactly 7
b) Zero
c) More than 7
d) Less than 7
25. Coloured glasses for goggles contain:
a) Ferrous oxide
b) Lanthanide oxide
c) Nickel oxide
d) Ferric oxide
26. Which of the following statement is NOT true for soap?
a) Soaps are bio-degradbale
b) Soaps cannot be used in acidic medium
c) Soaps form a white curdy precipitate with hard water
d) Soaps are relatively stronger in their cleaning action than synthetic detergents
27. Which one is a viral disease:
a) Cholera
b) Typhoid
c) Rabbies
d) Whooping cough
28. Rubella virus cause:
a) Chicken pox
b) Measles
c) Small pox
d) Mumps
29. I’m tired. I’d rather __________ out this evening, if you don’t mind.
a) don’t go
b) not go
c) not going
d) not to go
30. Anthropologists are of the view that Haryana was known by his name because in
Post-Mahabharta period lived:
a) Abhiras
b) Aryans
c) Haryanvis
d) None of the above
31. According to Delhi Museum Hariana “the Heaven on the Earth” dates back to:
a) 1126 AD
b) 1328 AD
c) 1500 AD
d) 1750 AD
HINT: The Delhi Museum Inscription of the reign of Muhammad Tughluq (A.D. 1328) gives the name as Hariyana ‘The very Heaven on Earth and where lies the city Dhillika (Delhi), built by the Tomaras.
32. Haryana state was formed on 1 November 1966 on recommendation of:
a) Lal Bahadur Shastri
b) Indira Gandhi
c) Sardar Hukam Singh
d) Sir Chottu Ram
33. Haryana is a landlocked state lies between:
a) 28 Degree 37 Minutes to 31 Degree 35 Minutes North
b) 24 Degree 26 Minutes to 27 Degree 28 Minutes North
c) 29 Degree 20 Minutes to 31 Degree 30 Minutes North
d) 27 Degree 37 Minutes to 30 Degree 35 Minutes North
34. Population density according to 2011 census is
a) 1002 people/per sqkm
b) 642 people/per sqkm
c) 573 people/per sqkm
d) 945 people/per sqkm
35. Haryana has
a) 5682 villages
b) 6759 villages
c) 4890 villages
d) None of the above
36. How many divisions the state is divided for Administrative purpose?
a) 5
b) 3
c) 4
d) None
37. Which of the District is not part of the Gurgaon Division?
a) Faridabad
b) Palwal
c) Hisar
d) Rewari
38. Haryana Board of School Education established in Sept. 1969 and shifted in 1981 to
a) Sonepat
b) Chandigarh
c) Bhiwani
d) Rohtak
39. Haryana has adopted New Sports Policy on:
a) 15th August 2008
b) 21st August 2009
c) 26th january 2009
d) 2nd October 2008
40. KMP stands for
a) Kurukshetra – Manesar – Panipat Expressway
b) Kundli – Manesar – Palwal Expressway
c) Kurukshetra – Manesar – Pautodi Expressway
d) Kurukshetra – Mahendragarh – Panipat Expressway
41. Haryana Industrial and Investment Policy – 2011 became effective in:
a) 1-1-2011
b) 26-1-2011
c) 15-8-2011
d) None of the above
42. Haryana Special Economic Zones Act came in existence in:
a) 2006
b) 2008
c) 2009
d) None of the above
HINT: In India, The Special Economic Zone (SEZ) Act, 2005 along with SEZ Rules came into effect on 10th February, 2006. The SEZ Act was enacted in Haryana on 23rd January 2006.
43. Literacy rate (%) in Haryana is:
a) 70.75 percent
b) 68.60 percent
c) 62.50 percent
d) 58.25 percent
HINT: Either incomplete statement or wrong options.
According to 2011 Census Literacy Rate in Haryana is : 76.44%
According to 1991 Census, it is 67.91% and here close figure is 68.60%
44. Arrange the sectoral growth in Haryana
a) Service - Agriculture - Industry
b) Industry - Service - Agriculture
c) Agriculture - Industry - Service
d) Service - Industry - Agriculture
45. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme has been extended in the
entire Haryana from:
a) 1st January 2008
b) 1st July 2009
c) 1st January 2010
d) None of the above
HINT: Firstly in Haryana, MGNREGA scheme was launched in Sirsa and Mahendragarh on 2nd Feb 2006. Further, this scheme was extended to Ambala and Mewat districts w.e.f 1st April 2007.The remaining districts of the State have been covered under the scheme w.e.f. 1st April 2008.
46. Average Yield per hectare of Wheat and Rice during 2010-11 in Haryana is estimated at:
a) 4560kg for Wheat and 2750 kg for rice
b) 4500kg for Wheat and 2700 kg for rice
c) 4250kg for Wheat and 2750 kg for rice
d) None of the above
47. Haryana State Annual Plan for 2011-12 approved by Planning Commision, Govt. of India is:
a) Rs. 20158 Crore
b) Rs. 20258 Crore
c) Rs. 20358 Crore
d) Rs. 20458 Crore
48. Which buffalo is called as Black Gold in Haryana?
a) Bhadavari
b) Niti-Ravi
c) Mehsana
d) Murrah
49. The Haryana Special Economic Zone came in the year
a) 2005
b) 2006
c) 2007
d) 2008
50. The Haryana Government’s Land Acquisation Policy,
a) has decided to double, even higher in some areas, the minimum floor rate (MFR) payable
for acquisition of land
b) increase both the annuity amount payable over 33 years as well as its incremental annual
hike and give bigger-size plots in case one’s residential property is acquired
c) the affected farmers would alsobe offered Government jobs, industrial and commercial plots
d) All the above
51. Barents Sea in the Arctic Ocean has been controversial over the maritime boundary for 40 years
between which of the following two countries? The issue was resolved recently.
a) Russia and Norway
b) Norway and Finland
c) Finland and Russia
d) Russia and Denmark
52. Navanentham Pillay, a South African national of India origin was the first non-white women of the
High Court of South Africa. What is her current profession?
a) Judge of the International Criminal Court
b) International Criminal Tribunal for Rwanda
c) United Nation High Commissioner for Human Rights
d) United Nation High Commissioner for Refugees
53. Consider the following statement:
1. India and Japan agreed to a ‘sweeping’ liberalization of their bilateral tax regime during
PM Manmohan Singh visit to Tokyo on 27th October 2010
2. This is the first in releasing the Indo-Japanese comprehensive Economic partnership Agreement
Which of the above statement are true?
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None of the above
54. Consider the following statements about the Ayodhya verdict:
1. 60 years the matter first went in to Litigation Luknow Bench of the High Court of Allahabad
ruled in majority judgement on 30th September 2010
2. Disputed sites to be divided into three equal parts: one part goes to Suni Wakf Board, one
to Nirmohi in Akhara and one part representing ‘Ramlalla Virajman’
3. Status quo to be maintained at disputed sites for three month
4. The bench which deleivered the much awaited verdict consisted of Justice Dharam Vir Sharma,
Justice S U Khan and Justice Sudhir Agarwal
Which of the above statement are true?
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Only 3
d) All the above
55. Parliament has passed SBI (Amendment) Bill 2010 which changes the minimum level of share
of the government in SBI’s equity
a) from 51% to 55%
b) from 55% to 51%
c) from 74% to 51%
d) from 55% to 49%
56. The Prime Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh and Sonia Gandhi have launched the Adhar Project under Unique Identification Authority of India at tembli in Nandurbar District. Nandurbar is in which of the following states?
a) Gujarat
b) Maharashtra
c) Madhya Pradesh
d) Tamilnadu
57. Recently UNO celebrated its 65th Anniversary on date:
a) 20th Oct 2010
b) 24th Oct 2010
c) 29th Oct 2010
d) 27th Oct 2010
58. The governement has recently announced a Rs.1052 crore incentive package for critical export
sectors including
1. Textile
2. Handicraft
3. Leather
Choose the correct answer from the below:
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) 1, 2 and 3
59. Who will be heading the National Inovation Council which will give shape to the government’s
decision to observe the current decades ( 2000 – 2020 ) as the decade of the innovation?
a) M S Swaminathan
b) C Rangarajan
c) Narayanamurthy
d) Sam Pitroda
60. Who among the following has been honoured the United Nation’s Millennium Development Goals Award for 2010 for their work in using innovative approaches for poverty and hunger alleviation?
a) BRIC
b) WHO
c) IBSA
d) G-20
61. Harappan people had a common burial system which is proved by:
a) The earth burial head of the dead normally laid towards the north
b) The burial of commonly used items with the dead
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) The burial of the dead body in the sitting posture
62. In Vedic Period, the people called panis, were:
a) Those who controlled trade
b) Cattle-breeders
c) Cowherds
d) Ploughmen
63. In the Vedic Age:
a) Polygamy was unknown
b) Child marriage became prominent
c) Widow could remarry
d) Hypergamy was allowed
64. Bring the correct statement regarding the first Buddhist Council:
1. Ananda and Upali laid down the Sutta Pataka and Vinaya Pitaka respectively
2. Its proceedings were conducted in Sanskrit
3. It was held during the life time of Buddha
4. Its main purpose was to maintain the purity of Buddha’s teachings
a) 1 and 4
b) All of them
c) 1 and 2
d) 2, 3 and 4
65. The sacred books of Jains are called:
a) Agama Sidhanta
b) Angas
c) Parvas
d) Upangas
66. Who founded the Lingayat Movement?
a) Basava
b) Ramanuja
c) Shankracharya
d) Kamban
67. What was Abwab?
a) Toll tax
b) religion tax such as Zakat
c) Tax on merchandise and custom duties
d) Miscellaneous kinds of taxes like the house tax, grazing tax, irrigation tax etc.
68. The term used for measurement of land in the Delgi Sutanate Period was:
a) Kismat-i-ghalla
b) Ghalla-bakshi
c) Masahat
d) Ghazi
69. The earlier Vaishnava Bhakti saints from the South were:
a) Alvars
b) Nayanars
c) Bhagavats
d) Virshaivites
70. Identify the Vijayanagar coin which were in the circulation and were the most widely recognized
currency all over:
a) Dinnar
b) Huna
c) Panam
d) Pagoda
71. Akbar did not construct:
a) Purana Quila
b) Agra Fort
c) Allahabad Fort
d) Lahore Fort
HINT: Purana Qila, situated on the banks of Yamuna in Delhi, was constructed by the Mughal emperor Humayun.
72. The main programme of the Red Sirts (Khudai Khidmatgars of Servants of God) organized by
Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan in support of the Civil Disobedience Movement was
a) To proceed on the lines of terrorist and revolutionary activities
b) To propagate the Congress programme
c) To resist the military operations of the government in the north-western frontier portion
d) To setup an para-military organization
HINT: In 1929, the Khudai Khidmatgars (“Servants of God”) movement, led by Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan, nonviolently mobilized to oppose the British in India’s Northwest Frontier Province.
73. The result of the Poona Pact was that the number of the seats reserved for the depressed
classes out of general electorate seats were:
a) Abolished
b) Increased
c) Retained in the same level
d) Decreased
HINT: A compromise between the leaders of caste Hindu and the depressed classes was reached on
September 24,1932, popularly known as Poona Pact. The number of seats for depressed classes
were increased from 71 to 148
74. Cripps proposal were rejected because:
a) It refused to release all the arrested national leaders
b) of the intention to partition India
c) It suggested the formation of an interim government
d) it refused to hand over effective power to the Indians
75. Who presided over the Cabinet Mission?
a) Clement Attlee
b) Sir P Lawrence
c) Strafford Cripps
d) A V Alexander
76. The Mountbatten Plan (June 3, 1947) was about:
a) Guidelines for the formation of a Constitution for India by the Constituent Assembly
b) Creation of fedral government
c) A plan for controlling communal riots raising all over India at the same time
d) The method by which power was to be transferred from British to Indian hands
HINT: When all of Mountbatten’s efforts to keep India united failed, he decided to chalk out a plan for the transfer of power and the division of the country.
77. The first Muslim to be elected as President of the Indian National Congress was :
a) M A Jinnah
b) Maulana Azad
c) Baddrudin Tyabji
d) Whooping cough
78. The Non-Cooperation Movement was adopted by the Congress at a Special Session held at
________ in September 1920.
a) Bombay
b) Calcutta
c) Wardha
d) Allahabad
79. The Non-Cooperation Movement was called off by Mahatma Gandhi because :
a) of Gandhi-Irwin Pact
b) of mob-violence at Chauri-Chaura
c) the Khilafat issue fizzled out with abolition of the office of the Caliph in Turkey
d) the government accepted the demand in tow
80. Which of the following Fundamental Rights have been deleted from the Constitution through
the Constitutional Amendment?
a) Right against expolitation
b) Right of freedom of religion
c) Right of property
d) Freedom of speech and expression
81. How many Fundamental Rights are enjoyed by the Indians?
a) Nine
b) Ten
c) Seven
d) Six
82. The basic difference between the Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles is:
a) Fundamental Rights are Positive while Directive Principles are Negative
b) Directive Principles are given precedence over the Fundamental Rights by the Court
in all the cases
c) Fundamental Rights are justifiable while Directive Principles are not
d) None of the above
83. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India has been described as the friend, philosopher and
guide of :
a) the Estimate Committee
b) the committee of the public Undertaking
c) the Public Account Committee
d) all the Parliamentary committees
84. Part -V of the Constitution deals with
a) Union executives
b) Parliamnet
c) Supreme Court and High Court
d) Comptroller and Auditor General
85. If there is a vacancy in the offices of both President and Vice-President, who has been empowered
to function as President:
a) Chief Justice of India
b) Chief of Army Staff
c) A person appointed by Parliament
d) None of these
86. If president returns the bill to the legislature for reconsideration
a) a re-passage of the bill by the two-thirds majority will compel him to give his assent
b) a re-passage of the bill by the simple majority will compel him to give his assent
c) a joint sitting will have to be called to pass it again
d) the legislature must accept amendments proposed by the President
87. To whom does the President address the letter of resignation?
a) the Prime Minister
b) the Vice President
c) the Speaker
d) the Chief justice
88. Two houses of the Parliament enjoy co-equal power in all spheres except:
1. Financial matters
2. Responsibilities of the Council of Ministers
3. Amendment Procedure
4. Election of President
a) 3 and 4
b) 2, 3 and 4
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 1 and 2
89. Impeachment proceedings against the President of Indian can be initiated
a) by the Supreme Court
b) only in the Lok Sabha
c) in either House of the Parliament
d) only in the joint sitting of the two Houses
90. Gulf Stream the most important current of the Atlantic Ocean takes its birth from the Gulf of Mexico.
Its importance lies in :
a) Cooling effect
b) Warming effect
c) Area of influence
d) Influence on travel
91. Which of the following sub-races belong to Mongoloids?
a) Bantu
b) Eskimoid
c) Nordic
d) Alpine
92. Consider the following statements:
1. The Masai is a tribe of settled cultivators who once wondered with their herds with the cattle
in the central highlands of East Africa.
2. The cattle kept by the Masaiare the “Zebu” cattle with the humps and long horns
Which of the statement is/are correct?
a) Only 1
b) Neither 1 or 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Only 2
93. Which of the following are not the Pastoral Nomads?
a) Pygmies
b) Kazaks
c) Masai
d) Lapps
HINT: Nomads are people who wander from place to place and have no permanent home. They usually travel within certain general areas according to the seasons and the supply of food. Nomads generally live in tents and carry few belongings with them. There are three kinds of nomads: hunter-gatherers, pastoral nomads, and peripatetic nomads. Pygmies of Africa and Asia are Hunting Nomads, who follow the animals that they kill to eat.
94. The world’s most commercial fishing grounds are located in:
a) Cool waters of the Northern Hemisphere in comparatively higher latitudes
b) Cool waters of the Northern Hemisphere in comparatively lower latitudes
c) Both above mentioned areas
d) A widespread area near the Poles
95. Which of the following used to be considered a buffer state?
a) France
b) Switzerland
c) Belgium
d) West Germany
HINT: A buffer state is a country lying between two rival or potentially hostile greater powers, which by its sheer existence is thought to prevent conflict between them. The tiny kingdom of Belgium was artificially created in 1830 as a buffer state between the surrounding countries of France, Germany, and the Netherlands. Alongwith Belgium, Cambodian and Afghanistan also considered as buffer state.
96. The Australian trans-continental railway joins
a) Perth to Darwin
b) Hobart to Perth
c) Sydney to Perth
d) Adelaide to Perth
97. When did the EEC( European Economic Community) change into EU(European Union)
a) 1992
b) 1995
c) 1996
d) 1991
98. Territorial waters of India extends up to
a) 5 Nautical Miles
b) 12 Nautical Miles
c) 15 Nautical Miles
d) 2 Nautical Miles
99. Which of the following river lies in the Rift Valley?
a) Luni
b) Chambal
c) Son
d) Tapti
100. Khaddar soils are found in:
a) Piedmont Plains
b) Flood Plains
c) Over low Palteaux
d) Over Steep Slopes
Answers
1. b 2. a 3. d 4. a 5. c 6. c 7. c 8. c 9. c 10. d
11. b 12. d 13. d 14. d 15. b 16. a 17. a 18. c 19. d 20. d
21. d 22. c 23. b 24. a 25. b 26. d 27. c 28. b 29. b 30. a
31. b 32. c 33. d 34. c 35. b 36. c 37. c 38. c 39. b 40. b
41. a 42. a 43. b 44. a 45. d 46. d 47. c 48. d 49. c 50. d
51. a 52. c 53. c 54. d 55. b 56. b 57. b 58. d 59. d 60. c
61. c 62. b 63. c 64. a 65. a 66. a 67. d 68. c 69. a 70. d
71. a 72. c 73. b 74. d 75. b 76. d 77. c 78. b 79. b 80. c
81. d 82. c 83. c 84. a 85. a 86. b 87. b 88. d 89. b 90. b
91. b 92. c 93. a 94. a 95. c 96. c 97. a 98. b 99. b 100. b
