ICICI BANK P.O. EXAM QUESTIONS

Computer Awareness

1. In a survey of more than 500 companies and government agencies, ____________ percent detected computer security breaches.

A. 20

B. 75

C. 85

D. 99

Answer: C

2. The survey showed that these businesses lost more than ____________ due to security breaches.
A. $100,000 each
B. $377 million
C. five employees each
D. $1 million
Answer: B

3. The typical computer criminal is a(n):
A. young hacker.
B. trusted employee with no criminal record.
C. trusted employee with a long, but unknown criminal record.
D. overseas young cracker.
Answer: B

4. The majority of computer crimes are committed by:
A. hackers.
B. insiders.
C. overseas criminals.
D. young teenage computer geniuses.
Answer: B

5. The common name for the crime of stealing passwords is:
A. spooling.
B. identity theft.
C. spoofing.
D. hacking.
Answer: C Reference: Theft by Computer
6. Collecting personal information and effectively posing as another individual is known as the crime of:
A. spooling.
B. identity theft.
C. spoofing.
D. hacking.
Answer: B
7. Malicious software is known as:
A. badware.
B. malware.
C. maliciousware.
D. illegalware.
Answer: B
8. A program that performs a useful task while simultaneously allowing destructive acts is a:
A. worm.
B. Trojan horse.
C. virus.
D. macro virus.
Answer: B Moderate
9. An intentionally disruptive program that spreads from program to program or from disk to disk is known as a:
A. Trojan horse.
B. virus.
C. time bomb.
D. time-related bomb sequence.
Answer: B
10. In 1999, the Melissa virus was a widely publicized:
A. e-mail virus.
B. macro virus.
C. Trojan horse.
D. Time bomb.
Answer: A
11. What type of virus uses computer hosts to reproduce itself?
A. Time bomb
B. Worm
C. Melissa virus
D. Macro virus
Answer: B
12. The thing that eventually terminates a worm virus is a lack of:
A. memory or disk space.
B. time.
C. CD drive space.
D. CD-RW.
Answer: A
13. When a logic bomb is activated by a time-related event, it is known as a:
A. time-related bomb sequence.
B. virus.
C. time bomb.
D. Trojan horse.
Answer: C
ICICI Bank PO Exam 2010 – Computer General Awareness Question Paper 1 Question No. 14 to 25
14. A logic bomb that was created to erupt on Michelangelo’s birthday is an example of a:
A. time-related bomb sequence.
B. virus.
C. time bomb.
D. Trojan horse.
Answer: C
15. What is the name of an application program that gathers user information and sends it to someone through the Internet?
A. A virus
B. Spybot
C. Logic bomb
D. Security patch
Answer: B
16. Standardization of Microsoft programs and the Windows operating system has made the spread of viruses:
A. more complicated.
B. more difficult.
C. easier.
D. slower.
Answer: C
17. HTML viruses infect:
A. your computer.
B. a Web page in the HTML code.
C. both a Web page and the computer that is viewing it.
D. No
18. Software programs that close potential security breaches in an operating system are known as:
A. security breach fixes.
B. refresh patches.
C. security repairs.
D. security patches.
Answer: D
19. When customers of a Web site are unable to access it due to a bombardment of fake traffic, it is known as:
A. a virus.
B. a Trojan horse.
C. cracking.
D. a denial of service attack.
Answer: D
20. ___________ is the measurement of things such as fingerprints and retinal scans used for security access.
A. Biometrics
B. Biomeasurement
C. Computer security
D. Smart weapon machinery
Answer: A
21. What is the most common tool used to restrict access to a computer system?
A. User logins
B. Passwords
C. Computer keys
D. Access-control software
Answer: B
22. The most common passwords in the U.S. or Britain include all EXCEPT:
A. love.
B. Fred.
C. God.
D. 123.
Answer: D
23. Hardware or software designed to guard against unauthorized access to a computer network is known as a(n):
A. hacker-proof program.
B. firewall.
C. hacker-resistant server.
D. encryption safe wall.
Answer: B
24. The scrambling of code is known as:
A. encryption.
B. a firewall.
C. scrambling.
D. password-proofing.
Answer: A

25. If you want to secure a message, use a(n):
A. cryptology source.
B. encryption key.
C. encryption software package.
D. cryptosystem.
Answer: D

CTET 2011 Answer Key Paper-I (EXAM HELD ON: 26-06-2011)

SSC Combined Graduate Level Tier - I Exam (26-06-2011) (First Sitting)

For SSC Combined Graduate Level Tier - I Exam (26-06-2011) (First Sitting) Paper CLICK HERE

Punjab National Bank Exam Question Paper

1. Nav Krishi is a programme by—
(1) Door Darshan
(2) All India Radio
(3) NIC
(4) ICRISAT
(5) MANAGE
2. One Acre is equal to…………..hectare.
(1) 0.0541
(2) 0.8032
(3) 0.1082
(4) 0.2514
(5) 0.4047
3. SRI technology is practiced for the cultivation of—
(1) Fruits
(2) Vegetables
(3) Flowers
(4) Rice
(5) Wheat
4. If the soil pH 9.2, then the soil is—
(1) Acidic
(2) Neutral
(3) Alkaline
(4) Saline
(5) Sodic
5. …………..is used for the reclamation of acidic soil—
(1) Lime
(2) Gypsum
(3) Sulphur
(4) Calcium Chloride
(5) Ferrous Sulphate
6. 2008 is declared as International Year of—
(1) Rice
(2) Wheat
(3) Sugarcane
(4) Potato
(5) Apple
7. Golden revolution refers to the development of—
(1) Oilseeds
(2) Pulses
(3) Horticulture
(4) Cereals
(5) Fodder
8. The most important rabi pulse crop in India is—
(1) Chickpea
(2) Soyabean
(3) Pigeon pea
(4) Green gram
(5) Black gram
9. RFLP (Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism) is—
(1) Growth promoter
(2) Molecular marker
(3) Growth retardent
(4) Herbicide
(5) Germicide
10. National Commission on Farmers was chaired by—
(1) Sri Som Pal
(2) Sri Y.C. Nanda
(3) Dr C. Rangarajan
(4) Dr M.S. Swaminathan
(5) Sri Sharad Pawar
11. Global Positioning Systems are useful for—
(1) Determining precise location (latitude and longitude) based on radio signal
(2) Determining precise distance based on radio signal
(3) Determining general pest system
(4) Determining disease forecast
(5) Determining area of farm
12. Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) recommends—
(1) Comfort Price
(2) State Advised Price
(3) Minimum Support Price
(4) Minimum Export Price
(5) Statutory Minimum Price
13. NPV (Nuclear Polyhedrosis Virus) is—
(1) Pest
(2) Pathogen
(3) Bio pesticide
(4) Bio fungicide
(5) Bio control agent
14. National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation is known as—
(1) NIAM
(2) NAFED
(3) MARKFED
(4) NACMF
(5) NACOM
15. Which insect is known as farmers' enemy No.1?
(1) Bollworm
(2) Desert locust
(3) Aphids
(4) Stem borer
(5) Fruit fly
16. Indian Institute of Forest management is located at—
(1) Chennai
(2) Bhopal
(3) Hissar
(4) Dehradun
(5) Imphal
17. In India forests account for about …………..of land surface.
(1) 11%
(2) 22%
(3) 33%
(4) 14%
(5) 25%
18. VAM is an alternative to inorganic fertilizer. VAM is—
(1) Azospirillum
(2) Mycorrhiza
(3) Phosphate solubilising bacteria
(4) Nitrogen fixing bacteria
(5) Azotobacter
19. An example of Single Cell Protein is—
(1) agar agar
(2) spirulina
(3) rhizobium
(4) acetobacter
(5) salmonella
20. Major producer of mulberry silk in India—
(1) Karnataka
(2) Jammu and Kashmir
(3) Jharkhand
(4) Assam
(5) Himachal Pradesh
21. Bird flu affects—
(1) Cattle
(2) Poultry
(3) Sheep
(4) Prawn
(5) Silkworm
22. Minor irrigation scheme comprises several types of works with capacities to irrigate upto—
(1) 2000 acre
(2) 2000 ha
(3) 1000 ha
(4) 1000 acre
(5) 2500 ha
23. Ideal NPK ratio for Indian soils is—
(1) 8 : 4 : 2
(2) 4 : 2 : 1
(3) 9 : 5 : 3
(4) 2 : 1 : 0.5
(5) 10 : 4 : 2
24. Which of the following is a bio diesel plant?
(1) Jatropha
(2) Rose
(3) Pepper
(4) Noni
(5) Teak
25. National Research Centre on Plant Biotechnology is situated at—
(1) Nagpur
(2) New Delhi
(3) Mumbai
(4) Kolkata
(5) Chennai

ANSWERS:
1. (1) 2. (5) 3. (4) 4. (3) 5. (1) 6. (4) 7. (3)8. (1) 9. (2) 10. (4) 11. (1) 12. (3) 13. (3) 14. (2) 15. (3)
16.(4) 17. (2) 18. (2) 19. (2) 20. (1) 21. (2) 22. (3) 23. (2) 24. (1) 25. (2)

West Bengal (M.S.C.) Assistant Grade Exam., 2008

1. For how long did Kurukshetra War continue ?
(A) 20 days
(B) 30 days
(C) 18 days
(D) 26 days

1. For how long did Kurukshetra War continue ?
(A) 20 days
(B) 30 days
(C) 18 days
(D) 26 days

2. Which places was Chhattisgarh curved out from ?
(A) Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh
(B) Jharkhand and Bihar
(C) Maharashtra and Bihar
(D) Bihar and Madhya Pradesh

3. Which of the following changes is a physical change ?
(A) Action of heat on potassium chlorate
(B) Copper sulphate is mixed with iron
(C) Sodium iodide and lead nitrate react
(D) Ammonium Chloride is combined with water

4. Mayor’s tenure in West Bengal (Kolkata) is—
(A) 1 year
(B) 2 years
(C) No definite time
(D) 5 years

5. Resistance of a wire depends on—
(A) Cross Section of wire
(B) Material
(C) Length of wire
(D) All of these

6. Which of the following is a chemical change ?
(A) Sublimation of iodine
(B) Candle is lighted
(C) Action of heat on potassium chlorate
(D) Photosynthesis

7. Central Drug Research Institute is located at—
(A) Bangalore
(B) Patna
(C) Lucknow
(D) Kolkata

8. Find the correct one—
(A) 1757-Battle of Plassey
(B) 1765-Battle of Buxar
(C) 1761-Battle of Amritsar
(D) 1757-First Battle of Panipat

9. Indian Forest Research Institute is located at—
(A) Dehradun
(B) Meerut
(C) Bilaspur
(D) Mausinram

10. First Film of Satyajit Ray was—
(A) Pather Panchali
(B) Apur Sansar
(C) Aparajita
(D) Kanchenjungha

11. Pen name ‘Beerbal’ belongs to—
(A) Pramatha Chaudhury
(B) Samaresh Basu
(C) Samaresh Majumdar
(D) Ashapurna Devi

12. Who wrote the book ‘Ashani Sanket’ ?
(A) Satyajit Ray
(B) Bibhuti Bhusan
(C) Rabindranath Tagore
(D) Jay Goswami

13. Where is Hawa Mahal located ?
(A) Jaipur
(B) Lucknow
(C) Bikaner
(D) Jaisalmer

14. Who founded the city of Allahabad ?
(A) Akbar
(B) Jahangir
(C) Sher Shah Suri
(D) Shah Jahan

15. Who was the Governor general of India during Sepoy Mutiny ?
(A) Lord Dalhousie
(B) Lord Canning
(C) Lord Cornwallish
(D) Lord Bentinck

16. Fort William in West Bengal was built in the name of ?
(A) William Blake
(B) William Taylor
(C) William III
(D) William

17. The last general election held in India was…number of election ?
(A) 13th
(B) 14th
(C) 15th
(D) 16th

18. In which year was Sarva Siksha Abhiyan launched ?
(A) 2005
(B) 1998
(C) 2001
(D) 2003

19. Which of the following organisms is responsible for creating the disease ‘Malaria’ ?
(A) Female Anopheles
(B) Male Anopheles
(C) Culex
(D) Eddis mosquitoes

20. Which part of our body is adversely affected owing to excessive intake of alcohol ?
(A) Liver
(B) Brain
(C) Nerves
(D) Spinal cord

21. Which is the National Flower of India ?
(A) Lotus
(B) Apricot
(C) Tulip
(D) Shamrock

22. What is the unit of resistance ?
(A) Ohm Cm
(B) Ohm
(C) Miu
(D) Angstrom

23. Which of the following is not associated with Sports ?
(A) Jhumpa Lahiri
(B) Mouma Bose
(C) Jhulan Goswami
(D) Saheli Dhar

24. With which is ‘Uro Cup’ associated ?
(A) Cricket
(B) Polo
(C) Football
(D) Wrestling

25. Santosh Cup is associated with ?
(A) Cricket
(B) Polo
(C) Football
(D) Wrestling

26. Subroto Cup is associated with ?
(A) Cricket
(B) Polo
(C) Football
(D) Wrestling

27. Which of the following transferred his capital from Munghyr to Murshidabad ?
(A) Mir Qasim
(B) Mir Zafar
(C) Murshid Quli Khan
(D) Alibardi Khan

28. East India Company was established in—
(A) 1600
(B) 1708
(C) 1702
(D) 1710

29. By which war was British rule in India established firmly ?
(A) Battle of Buxar
(B) Battle of Wandiwash
(C) Battle of Plassey
(D) None of these

30. Which of the following cricketers has the record of having the highest number of runs in world cricket ?
(A) Allan Border
(B) Steve Waugh
(C) Sachin Tendulkar
(D) Bryan Lara

31. The Principle of Jet Engine follows—
(A) Theory of Angular Momentum
(B) Newton’s third Law
(C) Theory of Friction
(D) Theory of Kinetic Energy

32. Which is the largest desert of India ?
(A) Thar
(B) Sahara
(C) Jaisalmer
(D) Mukrahn

33. Which of the following conditions allows a person to obtain Indian Citizenship ?
(A) Born in India
(B) Naturalisation
(C) By Registration
(D) All of these

34. Which of the following is an electromagnet ?
(A) Iron Bell
(B) Telephone Receiver
(C) Watch
(D) None of these

35. Rusting is an example of—
(A) Reduction
(B) Symbiosis
(C) Oxidation
(D) Pigmentation

36. Which of the following is known as ‘the king of chemistry’ ?
(A) Ferrous Sulphate
(B) Sulphuric acid
(C) Hydrochloric acid
(D) Nitric acid

37. Diabetes is caused when—
(A) there is a combination of defective insulin secretion and defective responsiveness to insulin
(B) there is inadequate insulin secretion and responsiveness to insulin
(C) Both A and B
(D) Neither A nor B

38. World Environment Day is on—
(A) June 5
(B) June 11
(C) June 30
(D) June 17

39. What is the unit of Power ?
(A) Watt
(B) Joules
(C) Dyne
(D) Poundal

40. ‘Do or Die’ Movement is otherwise known as—
(A) Civil Disobedience Movement
(B) Non-cooperation Movement
(C) Quit India Movement
(D) Khilafat Movement

41. Chemical name of ‘Hypo’ is—
(A) Sodium thiosulphate
(B) Calcium hexameta phosphate
(C) Phosphorous dihydride
(D) Sodium nitrate

42. Kathakali is a classical dance of—
(A) Kerala
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Chennai

43. The President of Indian Cricket League is—
(A) Subhash Chander
(B) Kapil Dev Nikhanj
(C) Kiran More
(D) John Macmillan

44. Satpura range lies between—
(A) Narmada and Tapti
(B) Vindhya and Panchet
(C) Mahanadi and Kaveri
(D) Kaberi and Godavari

45. Hirakud dam is located on the bank of which of the following rivers ?
(A) Narmada
(B) Tapi
(C) Mahanadi
(D) Godavari

46. Talcher is famous for a thermal power plant. It is located in which of the following states ?
(A) West Bengal
(B) Bihar
(C) Assam
(D) Orissa

47. Electric wire is added with—
(A) Live wire
(B) Earth wire
(C) Hardware
(D) Software

48. Which of the following metals is the most reactive with cold water ?
(A) Magnesium
(B) Potassium
(C) Sodium
(D) Boron

49. What happens when mercury in a barometer falls—
(A) an approaching storm
(B) good, dry and colder weather
(C) a probable settled weather
(D) None of these

50. Joint sitting of Parliament is presided over by—
(A) Lok Sabha Speaker
(B) Chairman, Rajya Sabha
(C) President
(D) None of these

51. Which of the following is responsible for mineral mapping and exploration of minerals in India ?
(A) ASI
(B) GSI
(C) MCI
(D) Ministry of Mines

52. Mycoplasma is associated with—
(A) Respiration disorder
(B) Excreation
(C) Photosynthesis
(D) None of these

53. Which is the most important thing responsible in photosynthesis ?
(A) Chloroplast
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Water
(D) Mineral salt

54. Gandhiji’s Satyagraha revolt was initiated against—
(A) Rowlatt law
(B) Partition of Bengal
(C) Anti people policy of the British
(D) Drain of Wealth

55. Which of the following is the oldest existing Bank of India ?
(A) New Bank of India
(B) The State Bank of India
(C) The Reserve Bank of India
(D) The Bank of Hindustan

56. First session of Indian National Congress was held in—
(A) Bombay
(B) Pune
(C) Lucknow
(D) Dehradun

57. Which one of the following metals was unknown to Indus Valley People (Mohenjodaro) ?
(A) Silver
(B) Copper
(C) Bronze
(D) Gold

58. Indus Valley People worshipped the God…… ?
(A) Pashupati Shiva
(B) Pipal
(C) Phallus
(D) Mother Goddess

59. Among the following most foreign exchange earner of India is—
(A) Wheat
(B) Tea
(C) Coffee
(D) Cotton

60. Rabi crops include—
(A) Wheat
(B) Ricew
(C) Jowar
(D) Millet

61. The first real emperor of India was—
(A) Alexander
(B) Ashoka
(C) Samudragupta
(D) Akbar

62. The Ganges flow from the Bay of Bengal upto Nabadweep in the name of—
(A) Hooghly
(B) Bhagirathi
(C) Padma
(D) Ganges

63. Which of the following Vedas is the oldest ?
(A) Samveda
(B) Jaju veda
(C) Atharva veda
(D) Rig veda

64. Which part of our body gets affected in the disease of jaundice ?
(A) Liver
(B) Kidney
(C) Pancreas
(D) Nerve

65. Which of the following refining processes is the purest ?
(A) Electrolytic refining
(B) Distillation
(C) Liquation process
(D) Oxidation

66. The first general election in India was held in the year—
(A) 1951
(B) 1952
(C) 1956
(D) 1948

67. Operation Flood is associated with—
(A) Dairy and milk production
(B) Oilseed production
(C) Pulses production
(D) None of these

68. White Vitriol is—
(A) Zinc phosphate
(B) Zinc sulphate
(C) Ferrous sulphate
(D) Zinc oxide

69. Quick Lime is—
(A) Calcium oxalate
(B) Calcium oxide
(C) Calcium bicarbonate
(D) Calcium hydroxide

70. Coral reef can be seen in—
(A) Pacific Ocean
(B) Atlantic Ocean
(C) Indian Ocean
(D) Mediterranean Sea

71. World’s largest island is—
(A) Madagaskar
(B) Greenland
(C) Great Britain
(D) None of these

72. Which of the following countries does not pass through Tropic of Cancer ?
(A) Switzerland
(B) Bahamas
(C) Libya
(D) Algeria

73. Find the parts of speech to which the following bold word falls. The shirt is very beautiful.
(A) Noun
(B) Adjective
(C) Adverb
(D) Interjection

74. Find in which tense the following sentence is…… They will have written the remaining part of the story.
(A) Future perfect
(B) Future indefinite
(C) Future continuous
(D) None of these

75. Write the meaning of the bold word in the following sentence. Please write out/in a copy of the agreement.
(A) fill with writing
(B) cancel
(C) calculate
(D) prepare

76. Find the odd one out of the following words—
(A) Socks
(B) Shirt
(C) Watch
(D) Skirt

77. Find the meaning of the following group of words/phrase/idioms. To take with a grain of salt—
(A) To have some reservation
(B) To take with total disbelief
(C) To take whole heartedly
(D) To take seriously/lightly

78. Find the meaning of the bold word in the following sentence. The political leaders’ charisma influenced all his followers.
(A) Magnetic appeal
(B) Influence
(C) None of these
(D) Wisdom

Answers :
1. (C) 2. (A) 3. (A) 4. (D) 5. (D) 6. (D) 7. (C) 8. (A) 9. (A) 10. (A)
11. (A) 12. (B) 13. (A) 14. (A) 15. (B) 16. (C) 17. (B) 18. (C) 19. (A) 20. (A)
21. (A) 22. (B) 23. (A) 24. (C) 25. (C) 26. (C) 27. (C) 28. (A) 29. (A) 30. (C)
31. (B) 32. (A) 33. (D) 34. (A) 35. (C) 36. (B) 37. (C) 38. (A) 39. (A) 40. (C)
41. (A) 42. (A) 43. (B) 44. (A) 45. (C) 46. (D) 47. (B) 48. (C) 49. (A) 50. (A)
51. (A) 52. (D) 53. (A) 54. (A) 55. (A) 56. (B) 57. (B) 58. (C) 59. (A) 60. (A)
61. (A) 62. (A) 63. (B) 64. (A) 65. (C) 66. (D) 67. (B) 68. (C) 69. (A) 70. (A)
71. (A) 72. (A) 73. (B) 74. (A) 75. (C) 76. (D) 77. (B) 78. (C)

Uttar Pradesh B.Ed. Joint Entrance Exam. 2010

General Knowledge
 
1. How many schedules the Constitution of India contains ?
(A) 9
(B) 10
(C) 11
(D) 12
Ans : (D)
2. The Constitution of India was adopted in—
(A) 26 January, 1950
(B) 26 January, 1949
(C) 26 November, 1949
(D) 31 December, 1949
Ans : (C)
3. In a nuclear reactor, one of the following is used as a fuel—
(A) Coal
(B) Uranium
(C) Radium
(D) Diesel
Ans : (B)

4. The first muslim ruler to introduce the system of price control was—
(A) Balban
(B) Jalaluddin Khalji
(C) Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq
(D) Alauddin Khalji
Ans : (D)
5. Tansen, a great musician, was in the court of—
(A) Akbar
(B) Bahadur Shah
(C) Rana Kumbha
(D) Krishna Deva Rai
Ans : (A)
6. Who among the following attended all the three Round Table Conferences ?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(C) Vallabh Bhai Patel
(D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Ans : (B)
7. Where is National Sugar Institute established?
(A) Kanpur
(B) New Delhi
(C) Lucknow
(D) Gajrola
Ans : (A)
8. A national leader, whose birthday is observed as the National Education Day on November 11, is—
(A) J. B. Kriplani
(B) Rajiv Gandhi
(C) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(D) Sarojini Naidu
Ans : (C)
9. The Nagarjuna Sagar Project is constructed on the river—
(A) Kaveri
(B) Krishna
(C) Godavari
(D) Indus
Ans : (B)
10. The Bermuada Triangle lies in—
(A) Western North Atlantic Ocean
(B) Eastern South Atlantic Ocean
(C) North Pacific Ocean
(D) South Indian Ocean
Ans : (A)
11. Who among the following has been honoured with Bharat Ratna for the year 2008 ?
(A) Dr. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam
(B) G. Madhavan Nair
(C) Pt. Bhimsen Joshi
(D) Lata Mangeshkar
Ans : (C)
12. Which of the following is India’s first nuclear powered submarine launched on 26 July, 2009 ?
(A) INS Virat
(B) INS Arihant
(C) INS Vikrant
(D) INS Talwar
Ans : (B)
13. The speed of light will be minimum while passing through—
(A) Glass
(B) Vacuum
(C) Water
(D) Air
Ans : (A)
14. Galvanised iron sheets have a coating of—
(A) Tin
(B) Lead
(C) Zinc
(D) Chromium
Ans : (C)
15. I.B.R.D. is also known as—
(A) International Bank
(B) World Bank
(C) Asian Development Bank
(D) Bank of America
Ans : (B)
16. The Gupta king who assumed the title of Vikramaditya was—
(A) Skandagupta
(B) Samudragupta
(C) Chandragupta–II
(D) Kumaragupta
Ans : (C)
17. Part IV of the Constitution of India deals with—
(A) Fundamental Rights
(B) Citizenship
(C) Directive Principles of State Policy
(D) Union Executive
Ans : (C)
18. Which amidst the following countries of the European union has not adopted the single currency Euro ?
(A) France
(B) U. K.
(C) Germany
(D) Spain
Ans : (B)
19. Permanent members of U. N. Security Council are—
(A) U.K., U.S.A., Russia, China, Japan
(B) U.S.A., France, China, U.K., Canada
(C) U.S.A., France, U.K., Russia, Canada
(D) U.S.A., U.K., France, Russia, China
Ans : (D)
20. The author of the book ‘My Country My Life’ is—
(A) Lal Krishna Advani
(B) Jaswant Singh
(C) Dilip Kumar
(D) Sunil Gavaskar
Ans : (A)
21. The Partition of Bengal was revoked by the British Government in the year—
(A) 1907
(B) 1917
(C) 1911
(D) 1921
Ans : (C)
22. The first talkie film in India was—
(A) Raja Harish Chandra
(B) Alam Ara
(C) Chandi Das
(D) Jhansi Ki Rani
Ans : (B)
23. ‘Blue Revolution’ is related to—
(A) Space research
(B) Irrigation
(C) Fisheries
(D) Drinking water
Ans : (C)
24. India has the maximum foreign trade with—
(A) Japan
(B) Germany
(C) U.S.A.
(D) U.K.
Ans : (C)
25. The most urbanised country in the world is—
(A) Japan
(B) Singapore
(C) Germany
(D) Israel
Ans : (B)
26. Which is the highest finance body for small scale industries ?
(A) IDBI
(B) SIDBI
(C) IFCI
(D) NABARD
Ans : (B)
27. What is the new name of the old region ‘Siam’ ?
(A) Myanmar
(B) Thailand
(C) Philippines
(D) Cambodia
Ans : (B)
28. Great poet Amir Khusarau’s birth place was—
(A) Patiyali (Etah)
(B) Kanpur
(C) Tehran
(D) Lahore
Ans : (A)
29. Bauxite is an ore of one of the following metals—
(A) Aluminium
(B) Silver
(C) Tin
(D) Steel
Ans : (A)
30. Who organized the fourth Buddhist council ?
(A) Ashoka
(B) Harsha
(C) Bindusara
(D) Kanishka
Ans : (D)
31. Who was the last ruler of Lodi dynasty ?
(A) Bahlol Lodi
(B) Ibrahim Lodi
(C) Sikandar Lodi
(D) Daulat Khan Lodi
Ans : (B)
32. The Capital of Andaman and Nicobar islands is—
(A) Port Blair
(B) Diu
(C) Kolkata
(D) Tirupati
Ans : (A)
33. Who among the following decides if a particular Bill is a Money Bill or not ?
(A) President
(B) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(C) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(D) Finance Minister
Ans : (B)
34. ‘Bar’ is the unit of—
(A) Heat
(B) Temperature
(C) Current
(D) Atmospheric pressure
Ans : (D)
35. Right to vote is a—
(A) Political right
(B) Civil right
(C) Economic right
(D) Legal right
Ans : (A)
36. Koneru Humpy is associated with—
(A) Lawn Tennis
(B) Hockey
(C) Chess
(D) Badminton
Ans : (C)
37. Which of the following hills connect eastern and western ghats ?
(A) Satpura
(B) Vindhya
(C) Nilgiri
(D) Aravalli
Ans : (C)
38. Which country is known as the ‘Cockpit of Europe’ ?
(A) Belzium
(B) Switzerland
(C) Netherlands
(D) Luxembourg
Ans : (A)
39. In Uttar Pradesh, Charkula folk dance is related with—
(A) Ruhelkhand region
(B) Brij region
(C) Bundelkhand region
(D) Avadh region
Ans : (B)
40. Which among the following is a central university in Uttar Pradesh ?
(A) Dr. Ram Manohar Lohia Avadh University, Faizabad
(B) Mahatma Gandhi Kashi Vidyapeeth, Varanasi
(C) Chhatrapati Sahuji Maharaj University, Kanpur
(D) Allahabad University, Allahabad
Ans : (D)
41. Lucknow Congress session 1916, was presided over by—
(A) Sarojini Naidu
(B) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(C) Ambika Charan Majumdar
(D) Pt. J. L. Nehru
Ans : (C)
42. Rihand Project is located at—
(A) Lalitpur district
(B) Mirzapur district
(C) Aligarh district
(D) Sultanpur district
Ans : (B)
43. Where was ‘Tanchoi’ brocade developed ?
(A) Varanasi
(B) Dhaka
(C) Surat
(D) Tanjavur
Ans : (A)
44. Who wrote ‘Sarfaroshi Ki Tamanna Ab Hamare Dil Mein Hai’ ?
(A) Mohammed Iqbal
(B) Kazi Nazrul Islam
(C) Anand Narayan Mulla
(D) Ram Prasad Bismil
Ans : (D)
45. The chemical that is used in making artificial rain is—
(A) Silver Nitrate
(B) Silver Iodide
(C) Silver Nitrite
(D) Silver Chloride
Ans : (B)
46. Which of the following is the hardest substance in the human body ?
(A) Bone
(B) Enamel
(C) Nail
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)
47. Agricultural income tax is a source of revenue to—
(A) Central Government
(B) State Government
(C) Local Administration
(D) Centre and State Governments
Ans : (B)
48. Largest Mica deposits are in—
(A) South Africa
(B) Australia
(C) Canada
(D) India
Ans : (D)
49. Lalitpur district in U. P. is known for the—
(A) Uranium deposits
(B) Sugar industry
(C) Polic training academy
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)
50. Which of the following oceans has the shape of the English alphabet ‘S’ ?
(A) Arctic Ocean
(B) Indian Ocean
(C) Atlantic Ocean
(D) Pacific Ocean
Ans : (C)

Indira Gandhi National Open University (IGNOU) B.Ed. Entrance Exam

Part-A

Section–I

General English

Comprehension

Directions—Read the following passage carefully and pick out the best answer out of the our choices given in the questions that follow.

A duty is an obligation. It is something we owe to others as social beings when we live together. We must let others live with us. My right of living implies my duty to my fellow beings to allow them the same conditions of life. In fact, rights and duties are correlated. What is a right in regard to one may be a duty in regard to others. Rights and duties are two sides of the same coin. We should always observe from the standpoint of others. Moral duty is more effective than legal rights. A moral duty is that which is binding upon the people on moral grounds. It is my moral duty to help the poor because of being a member of the society.

I must try to create conditions that contribute to the welfare of humanity. Similarly, I owe a duty to my parents—to be obedient and respectful to them. This duty originates from the sense of responsibility which is directly related to our conscience. So this is concerned with a moral duty which any person owes without a legal bondage.

A sense of duty is paramount for the proper development of civilization. Hypocrisy is quite reverse to the sense of duty. It involves wickedness, while duty involves sincerity and faithfulness.

1. According to the passage, rights and duties are—
(A) Two sides of the same coin
(B) Correlated
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)

2. According to the passage legal duty is—
(A) More important than moral duty
(B) Less important than moral duty
(C) More effective than moral duty
(D) Less effective than moral duty

3. Duty comes from—
(A) Responsibility
(B) Legal bondage
(C) Hypocrisy
(D) None of the above

4. Which of the following statements is not correct according to the passage ?
(A) Hypocrisy involves wickedness
(B) Hypocrisy is opposed to duty
(C) Duty involves sincerity
(D) Sense of duty is not important for the development of civilization

5. Which of the following moral duties has not been mentioned in the passage ?
(A) Moral duty towards our motherland
(B) Moral duty towards our parents
(C) Moral duty towards the poor
(D) Moral duty to contribute to the welfare of humanity

6. Which of the following is not related to moral duty ?
(A) Sense of responsibility
(B) Conscience
(C) Hypocrisy
(D) Sincerity

7. Why is it a duty to help the poor ?
(A) Because I am poor
(B) Because I am rich
(C) Because I belong to the society
(D) Because God wants this

8. Why should I be obedient and respectful to my parents ?
(A) Because of my sense of responsibility
(B) Because of legal bonding
(C) Because of civilization
(D) Because of hypocrisy

9. “We should always observe from the standpoint of others.” This is a—
(A) Simple sentence
(B) Complex sentence
(C) Compound sentence
(D) Phrase

10. The word ‘always’ in “We should always observe from the standpoint of others” is a/an
(A) Adverb
(B) Adjective
(C) Noun
(D) Verb

Answers :
1. (A) 2. (D) 3. (A) 4. (D) 5. (A) 6. (C) 7. (C) 8. (A) 9. (A) 10. (A)

Part-A
Section–IILogical & Analytical Reasoning

Directions—(Q. 11–14) In each of the following questions an incomplete series of numbers, with one blank is given. Identify the missing member from the given alternatives.

11. 1, 27, 125, …?…, 729
(A) 242
(B) 314
(C) 307
(D) 343

12. 2, 5, 10, 50, 500, …?…
(A) 25000
(B) 560
(C) 550
(D) 540

13. 3, 14, 47, …?…, 443, 1334
(A) 61
(B) 89
(C) 146
(D) 445

14. 2, 9, 30, 93, 282, …?…
(A) 849
(B) 846
(C) 649
(D) 746

Directions—(Q. 15–18) In each of the following questions there are five groups of letters. First is the primary one, followed by four; out of which one is different from the rest. Identify this odd member.

15. IIJL
(A) QQSV
(B) EEFH
(C) AABD
(D) MMNP

16. ABAC
(A) BCBD
(B) PRPQ
(C) CDCE
(D) STSU

17. BXTP
(A) OKGC
(B) DZVR
(C) XTOK
(D) EAWS

18. DINS
(A) HMSX
(B) FKPU
(C) JOTY
(D) NSXC

19. Which pair is different in some way from others in the following pairs ?
(A) Bottle and ink
(B) Can and oil
(C) Bag and clothes
(D) Boat and ship

Directions—(Q. 20–24) In each of the following questions there are five figures. First is a reference figure. Among the answer figures one figure does not belong to the class to which the first figure belongs. Identify this odd figure.

Directions—(Q. 25–28) In each of the following questions two statements are followed by two conclusions. Assuming that the two given statements are true (however absurd they may be) decide which of the two conclusions follows strictly from the given statements. Select the most appropriate alternative.

25. All men are chairs.
All animals are chairs
Conclusions :
I. All men are animals.
II. No animal is a man.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Both I and II follow
(D) Neither I nor II follows

26. Buckets are means of transport.
Stairs are means of transport.
Conclusions :
I. Buckets are stairs.
II. Some stairs are buckets.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Both I and II follow
(D) Neither I nor II follows

27. No bird has wings.
All birds are rational.
Conclusions :
I. Some rationals have wings.
II. Wingless are birds.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Both I and II follow
(D) Neither I nor II follows

28. All philosophers are rational people.
Some rational people are happy.
Conclusions :
I. Some happy people are philosophers.
II. Some happy people are rational.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Both I and II follow
(D) Neither I nor II follows

29. Which is the fourth letter to the left of the letter that is mid-way between ‘O’ and ‘P’ in ‘CARDIOGRAPH’ ?
(A) D
(B) I
(C) O
(D) R

30. Which is the odd term in the following list ?
(A) January
(B) May
(C) April
(D) August

Answers with Explanation :
11. (D) 12. (A) 13. (C) 14. (A) 15. (A) 16. (B) 17. (C) 18. (A)
19. (D) In all the rest the first is used to fill the second.
20. (A) All the rest are consonants alike ‘J’ while ‘A’ is vowel.
21. (B) All the rest are perfect squares.
22. (B) In all the rest the lower designs are the mirror image of the upper designs.
23. (D) In all the rest, the st. lines are both sides of the middle design.
24. (B) In all the rest both the leaves are not joined at one place.
25. (D) 26. (D) 27. (B) 28. (B) 29. (A)
30. (C) All the rest have thirty days each.

Part-A
Section–IIIEducational and General Awareness

31. Ganpati festival was started by—
(A) Jyotiba Phule
(B) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(C) M. G. Ranade
(D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

32. The name ‘Indian National Congress’ was given by—
(A) S. N. Banerjee
(B) Feroz Shah Mehta
(C) Dadabhai Naoroji
(D) M. G. Ranade

33. German Silver is the alloy combination of—
(A) Copper, Zinc and Nickel
(B) Copper, Aluminium and Nickel
(C) Chromium, Nickel and Mercury
(D) Copper, Lead and Chromium

34. Who is considered the ‘Guardian of public purse’ ? 
(A) President
(B) Parliament
(C) Comptroller and Auditor General
(D) Public Accounts Committee

35. Where is Nandapa Wild-life Sanctuary ?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Himachal Pradesh
(D) Madhya Pradesh

36. Which of the following committees on education is considered as the Magna Carta of
English Education in India ?
(A) Wood’s Despatch
(B) Raleigh Commission
(C) Saddler Commission
(D) Hunter Commission

37. Who said—“Patriotisim is religion and religion is love for India” ?
(A) Swami Vivekananda
(B) Raj Narain Bose
(C) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(D) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee

38. The famous ‘Kirtistambha’ at Chittor was built by—
(A) Rana Pratap
(B) Rana Kumbha
(C) Rana Hammir
(D) Rana Sangram Singh

39. Gold coins in India were first introduced by—
(A) Sakas
(B) Parthians
(C) Indo-Greeks
(D) Kushans

40. Light year is the unit of—
(A) Time
(B) Distance
(C) Light
(D) Intensity of light

41. Which of the following is known as ‘morning star’ ?
(A) Venus
(B) Mars
(C) Jupiter
(D) Saturn

42. All the following foods lack vitamin C, except—
(A) Rice
(B) Meat
(C) Cheese
(D) Milk

43. The fourth state of matter is—
(A) Super fluids
(B) Small particles suspended in the gas
(C) Liquid crystals
(D) Plasma

44. The leading producer of coffee in the world is—
(A) Turkey
(B) Brazil
(C) Venezuela
(D) Cuba

45. The Bhutia group of languages does not include—
(A) Ladakhi
(B) Tibetan
(C) Lepcha
(D) Sherpa

46. The largest producer of sugarcane in India is—
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Gujarat
(C) Punjab
(D) Uttar Pradesh

47. Which of the following matchings is wrong ?
(A) Vijayawada — Narmada
(B) Lucknow — Gomti
(C) Badrinath — Alaknanda
(D) Ayodhya — Saryu

48. The first nuclear reactor of India was named as—
(A) Urvashi
(B) Rohini
(C) Kamini
(D) Apsara

49. Fundamental right to education has been brought through—
(A) 83rd Constitution (Amendment) Act
(B) 86th Constitution (Amendment) Act
(C) 93rd Constitution (Amendment) Act
(D) 96th Constitution (Amendment) Act

50. Integrated Child Development Scheme (ICDS) caters to—
(A) Early Child care and Education alone
(B) Early child care and Education with five other components
(C) Early Child care and Education with four other components
(D) Early Child care and three other components

51. Education Commission in independent India which focused on Secondary Education was chaired by—
(A) Dr. D. S. Kothari
(B) A. Lakshmiswami Mudaliar
(C) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(D) Triguna Sen

52. Education Commission in pre-independence India which comprehensively covered all
aspects of education is known as—
(A) Saddler Commission
(B) Hunter Commission
(C) Sargent Plan
(D) Abbot-Wood Report

53. Tarachand Committee provided recommendations on—
(A) Student’s Unrest
(B) Religious and Moral Education
(C) Vocationalisation of Education
(D) Secondary Education

54. State expenditure of 6 percent of G. D. P. was recommended by—
(A) Kothari Commission (1966)
(B) National Education Policy (1968)
(C) National Policy on Education (1986)
(D) Review Committee on NPE (1986)

55. The latest National Curriculum Framework by NCERT came into existence in—
(A) 2000
(B) 2004
(C) 2005
(D) 2006

Answers :

31. (D) 32. (C) 33. (A) 34. (B) 35. (B) 36. (A) 37. (A) 38. (B) 39. (D) 40. (B)
41. (A) 42. (D) 43. (D) 44. (B) 45. (A) 46. (D) 47. (A) 48. (D) 49. (B) 50. (B)
51. (B) 52. (B) 53. (D) 54. (C) 55. (C)

Part-A
Section–IVTeaching-Learning and The School

56. What would be your approach if a student interrupts in your class ?
(A) You will ask him to leave the class
(B) You will ask him to behave properly
(C) You will assess his reasons to do the same
(D) You will give him extra home-work

57. How would you prefer to address a student who has not completed his home-work ?
(A) When are you going to complete it ?
(B) You did not do it. Try it
(C) Why did you not complete it ?
(D) You better ignore it now

58. Schools should be concerned with the development of child, which should include—
(A) Acquisition of knowledge by the child
(B) Acquisition of life-skills by the child
(C) Acquisition of skills required by the nation
(D) Acquisition of skills required by a healthy person

59. The main reason for non-achievement of full literacy in India is—
(A) Lack of funds
(B) Incapability of utilization of funds
(C) Lack of suitable facilities
(D) Lack of will to achieve the goal

60. The main purpose of ‘Parent-Teacher-Association (PTA)’ in any school is to—
(A) Keep students in check/control
(B) Collect additional funds for remedial teaching
(C) Share understanding of the problems faced by school
(D) Involve parents for improvement of school functioning

61. Student gives a partially correct response to your question. Then you will—
(A) Seek further information
(B) Provide reinforcement
(C) Reframe your question
(D) Tell the correct information

62. School can be called a social agent if—
(A) It transmits knowledge
(B) It educates about rights and duties
(C) It imparts knowledge about traditions and values
(D) It organises various activities

63. One basic differenc between traditional schools and open learning schools is that—
(A) The former are systematic
(B) The latter do not cultivate cultural values
(C) The latter use modern gadgets
(D) The former carry personal touch

64. School can be considered a …… group as far as socialising agency is concerned.
(A) Primary
(B) Secondary
(C) Supplementary
(D) Tertiary

65. Which of the following statements is not true?
(A) Acquisition of ‘life-skills’ is part of maturation
(B) Acquisition of ‘life-skills’ is part of social process
(C) ‘Life-skills’ are directly moulded
(D) ‘Life-skills’ are learnt

66. A student wants to share his problem with his teacher and visits the teacher for the same at his home. In such a situation, the teacher should—
(A) Suggest to him to escape from his home
(B) Contact the student’s parents and provide help
(C) Extend reasonable help and boost his morale
(D) Warn him to never visit his home

67. If a student alleges against you for showing favouritism in evaluation of scripts, how would you deal with him ?
(A) Reject his allegations
(B) Adopt punitive measure
(C) Make efforts to reveal his position
(D) Show his answer book and few more

68. The major responsibility with which school personnel have been entrusted is that of—
(A) Adjusting social demands to the needs of the child
(B) Adjusting the child to conform to the demands of society
(C) Changing human nature to conform to social expectations
(D) Preparing the child to change the society

69. In order to develop a good rapport with students, a teacher should (select the most important activity)—
(A) Love his students
(B) Be friendly with all
(C) Pay individual attention
(D) Communicate well

70. The best reason because of which a teacher can command respect from his students is if—
(A) He follows innovative practices in the class
(B) He dictates notes to the class
(C) He reads and explains the text-book
(D) He does not give home assignment

71. Development of moral values among students is very important. What would you do to develop the same ?
(A) Encourage moral value related works
(B) Organise lectures
(C) Display stories based on moral values
(D) Present yourself as a role model

72. Teaching aids are useful because they—
(A) Help teacher’s work
(B) Activate all senses
(C) Help students to be attentive
(D) Make learning more meaningful

73. Teacher’s class-room behaviour should be good because—
(A) It will set an example
(B) Students will be more attentive
(C) Environment would be conducive to learning
(D) Students will appreciate it

74. You have a class which is very heterogeneous in height. You should allow a seating arrangement—
(A) Which is random
(B) Where smaller students are allowed to sit in such a way that they can see and participate easily in class activities
(C) Which is purely based on height
(D) That has taller students on one side of the class

75. Which one of the following may not be the best reason for cheating in the class-room examination ?
(A) Too lazy to study
(B) Parental pressure for good marks
(C) Fear of failure
(D) Self-prestige

76. In this age of academic excellence demand, inclusion of games and sports in schools is—
(A) A wastage of time
(B) Taking away a lot of time from academic work
(C) Giving time for leisure or relaxation
(D) Necessary for the co-ordinated development of the individual

77. Which one of the following pairs is odd (or not properly associated) ?
(A) Froebel — Playway
(B) Maria Montessori — Divergent thinking
(C) Keller — Co-operative learning
(D) Gandhiji — Soiled hands

78. While teaching the concept of a ‘circle’, which one of the following would be the best way to do it ?
(A) Present a picture of a circle
(B) Present pictures of circles of various sizes
(C) Present pictures of circles and ellipses
(D) Present pictures of circles and polygons

79. Teaching would be more effective if the teacher—
(A) Makes his intent purposeful
(B) Is master of the subject
(C) Uses various instructional aids
(D) Declares his objectives in the beginning

80. In a democratic country like India, schools should concentrate on—
(A) Development of traits to face hurdles of daily life
(B) Inculcation of values cherised by the community
(C) Preparation for academic excellence
(D) Development of traits of good citizenship

Answers :
56. (C) 57. (C) 58. (B) 59. (D) 60. (D) 61. (B) 62. (D) 63. (D) 64. (B) 65. (A)
66. (C) 67. (D) 68. (B) 69. (C) 70. (A) 71. (D) 72. (D) 73. (C) 74. (B) 75. (D)
76. (D) 77. (D) 78. (B) 79. (C) 80. (D)

Part-B
Section–VSubject Competence(i) Science

following passage carefully and pick out the best answer out of the our choices given in the questions that follow.81. Clothes do not dry quickly on a rainy day because on a rainy day—
(A) Humidity is high
(B) Humidity is low
(C) Temperature becomes high
(D) Atmospheric pressure rises

82. Joule is the unit of—
(A) Force
(B) Power
(C) Energy
(D) Pressure

83. The audible range of hearing for average human beings is—
(A) 20 Hz to 20 KHz
(B) 2 Hz to 20 Hz
(C) 2 Hz to 20 KHz
(D) 2 KHz to 20 KHz

84. Tritium is an—
(A) Isobar of Hydrogen
(B) Isotope of Hydrogen
(C) Isobar of helium
(D) Isotope of helium

85. Which of the following ions helps in the
opening and closing of stomata ?
(A) Na⁺
(B) K⁺
(C) Ca⁺⁺
(D) None of the above

86. Which of the following does not have plus (+) or minus (–) signs marked on it ?
(A) Resistor
(B) Ammeter
(C) Voltmeter
(D) Battery

87. Photosynthesis is a—
(A) Catabolic process
(B) Anabolic process
(C) Amphibolic process
(D) All of these

88. If a mirror forms an erect but diminished image of an object placed anywhere infront of it, is a—
(A) Concave Mirror
(B) Plane Mirror
(C) Convex Mirror
(D) Concave and convex Mirror (both)

89. The instrument to measure atmospheric pressure is called—
(A) Pyrometer
(B) Thermopile
(C) Barometer
(D) Manometer

90. Orange colour of the setting sun is due to—
(A) Reflection of light
(B) Diffusion of light
(C) Scattering of light
(D) Polarisation of light

91. What is the final colour of blue litmus when a dilute solution of NaOH is added to it ?
(A) Red
(B) Pink
(C) Orange
(D) Blue

92. Pick the odd one out—
(A) Fermentation
(B) Aerobic Respiration
(C) Anaerobic Respiration
(D) Breathing

93. Hypotonic solution as compared to Hypertonic solution has—
(A) More solute
(B) Less solute
(C) Same solute
(D) Nothing can be said about the amount of solute

94. Volt is the unit of—
(A) Charge
(B) Current
(C) Resistance
(D) Potential difference

95. Two resistors having resistances of 1 ohm and 2 ohms respectively are connected is series with a battery. The current through the 2 ohms resistor is 2 amperes. The current through the 1 ohm resistor will be—
(A) 0·5 amp
(B) 1 amp
(C) 2 amp
(D) 4 amp

96. The addition of which one of the following will decrease the pH value of water ?
(A) Caustic Soda
(B) Baking soda
(C) Salt
(D) Hydrochloric acid

97. The branch of science that deals with tumours is—
(A) Osteology
(B) Anatomy
(C) Oncology
(D) Urology

98. Pneumonia is a disease associated with—
(A) Liver
(B) Lungs
(C) Gums
(D) Kidney

99. ‘Decibel’ is a measure of—
(A) Time
(B) Distance
(C) Intensity of sound
(D) Energy

100. Which of the following have the highest frequency ?
(A) Heat waves
(B) Sound waves
(C) Ultraviolet rays
(D) Gamma rays

Answers with Explanation :
81. (A) 82. (C) 83. (A) 84. (B) 85. (B) 86. (A) 87. (C) 88. (C) 89. (C) 90. (C) 91. (D)
92. (A) Fermentation is an enzymatic transformation of organic substracts. Rest three do not need enzymatic transformation.
93. (B) 94. (D)
95. (C) In series connection same current flows through all the resistances.
96. (D) 97. (C) 98. (B) 99. (C) 100. (D)

Part-B
Section–V(ii) Mathematics

101. The value of

102. In a mixture of 35 litres, the ratio of milk and water is 5 : 2. Another 5 litres of milk is added to the mixture. The ratio of milk and water in the new mixture is—
(A) 3 : 1
(B) 1 : 3
(C) 2 : 3
(D) 3 : 2

103. Walking at 4 km an hour, a peon reaches his office 5 minutes late. If he walks at 5 km an hour, he will be 4 minutes too early. The distance of his office from the residence is—
(A) 5 km
(B) 4 km
(C) 3 km
(D) 2 km

104. If 5^x–2·3^2x–3 = 135, then the value of x is—
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3

105. The simple interest on a certain amount at 4% p.a. for 4 years is Rs. 80 more than the interest on the same sum for 3 years at 5% p.a. The sum is—
(A) Rs. 6000
(B) Rs. 7200
(C) Rs. 7500
(D) Rs. 8000

106. A trader marks an article at 30% more than the cost price. He gives 10% discount to his customers and gains Rs. 25·50 per article. The cost price of the article is—
(A) Rs. 150
(B) Rs. 200
(C) Rs. 175
(D) Rs. 250

107. The price of sugar is increased by 25%. How much per cent should a man decrease his consumption so that there is no increase in his expenditure ?
(A) 10%
(B) 20%
(C) 5%
(D) 15%

108. Rs. 6500 were divided equally among a certain number of persons. Had there been 15 more persons each would have got Rs. 30 less. The original number of persons was—
(A) 65
(B) 60
(C) 50
(D) 40

109. 2 men and 6 boys can do in 4 days a piece of work which would be done again in 4 days by 4 men and 3 boys. One man will do it in—
(A) 36 days
(B) 24 days
(C) 16 days
(D) 12 days

110. If sin A = 24/25, the value of tan A + sec A, where 0° < A < 90° is—
(A) 49
(B) 25
(C) 24
(D) 7

111. If tan A = n sin B and sin A = m sin B, then the value of cos² A is—
(A) m²/n²
(B) m² × n²
(C) m² – n²
(D) m² + n²

112. The angle of elevation of the top of a hill at the foot of a tower is 60° and the angle of elevation of the top of the tower from the foot of the hill is 30°. If the tower is 50 m high, the height of the hill is—
(A) 100 m
(B) 125 m
(C) 150 m
(D) 200 m

113. A steel wire when bent in the form of a square encloses an area of 121 sq. cm. If the same wire is bent into the form of a circle, the area of the circle is—
(A) 88 sq. cm
(B) 142 sq. cm
(C) 154 sq. cm
(D) 212 sq. cm

114. The number of spherical bullets that can be made out of a solid cube of lead whose edge measures 44 cm, if the diameter of each bullet be 4 cm, is—
(A) 2541
(B) 847
(C) 1270
(D) 363

115. The ratio between the radius of the base and the height of a cylinder is 2 : 3. If its volume is 1617 cm³, the total surface area of the cylinder is—
(A) 575 cm2
(B) 770 cm2
(C) 1205 cm2
(D) 1500 cm2

116. The median of the following data is—
25, 34, 31, 23, 22, 26, 35, 26, 20, 32
(A) 25·5
(B) 26
(C) 26·5
(D) 25

117. The average weight of 10 men is decreased by 3 kg when one of them whose weight is 80 kg is replaced by a new person. The weight of the new person is—
(A) 70 kg
(B) 60 kg
(C) 50 kg
(D) 73 kg

118. The value of k so that the points A(k, 1), B(2, 1) and C(5,–1) are collinear is—
(A) 4
(B) 3
(C) 2
(D) 1

119. The common difference of the A.P. a, a + d, a + 2d,… for which the 20th term is 10 more than the 18th term, is—
(A) 4
(B) – 4
(C) – 5
(D) 5

120. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. The probability of getting a total of at least 10
is—
(A) 5/12
(B) 1/6
(C) 5/6
(D) 1/12

Answers :
101. (B) 102. (A) 103. (C) 104. (D) 105. (D) 106. (A) 107. (B) 108. (C) 109. (B) 110. (D)
111. (A) 112. (C) 113. (C) 114. (A) 115. (B) 116. (B) 117. (C) 118. (C) 119. (D) 120. (D)

Part-B(iii) Social Science

121. The Treaty of Sreerangapattanam was between Tipu Sultan and—
(A) Cornwallis
(B) Clive
(C) Warren Hastings
(D) Wellesley

122. The famous Besnagar Pillar Inscription of century 150 BC refers to the great theistic cult of—
(A) Panchika and Hariti
(B) Pashupatis
(C) Krishna-Vasudeva
(D) Shakti

123. What is a water hyacinth ?
(A) A weed
(B) A medicinal plant
(C) A decorative plant
(D) A highly sought after plant

124. To which of the following bills must the President accord his sanction without sending it back for recommendations ?
(A) Ordinary bills
(B) Finance bills
(C) Bills passed by both the houses of Parliament
(D) Bills seeking amendment to the Constitution

125. The amendment procedure of the Indian Constitution has been modelled on the constitutional pattern of—
(A) Canada
(B) USA
(C) Switzerland
(D) South Africa

126. Indian Railways tied up with which of the following to launch a co-branded card and
traveller loyalty card to tap the huge railway passengers market ?
(A) BoB card
(B) Citibank card
(C) SBI card
(D) None of these

127. Which bank advertises itself as the world’s local bank ?
(A) Citibank
(B) HSBC
(C) ICICI Bank
(D) ABN Amro

128. In which state is Silent Valley located ?
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Kerala
(C) Assam
(D) Arunachal Pradesh

129. Which of the following is not a promotional and motivational measure suggested in the National Population Policy 2000 ?
(A) Reward Panchayat and Zila Parishad for promoting small family norm
(B) Incentive to adopt two child norm
(C) Couples below poverty line will be given health insurance plans
(D) Banning abortion facilities (looking at female infanticides)

130. Who said, “HANOZ DELHI DOOR AST” ?
(A) Nizamuddin Aulia
(B) Farid
(C) Nasiruddin
(D) None of these

131. In which of the following constitutional documents did the British Government for the first time, officially lay down as the goal of constitutional development in India, not only dominion status, but also responsible Government ?
(A) Indian Council Act, 1892
(B) Indian Council Act, 1909
(C) Government of India Act, 1919
(D) Government of India Act, 1935

132. In which state is chromite abundantly found ?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Orissa
(D) Karnataka

133. For what is the Manas Sanctuary in Assam known ?
(A) Bear
(B) Tiger
(C) Wild ass
(D) Birds

134. The Rajya Sabha can take initiative in—
(A) Censuring a Central Minister
(B) Creating a new All India Service
(C) Considering Money Bills
(D) Appointing judges

135. Which of the following provides the largest part of the demand for loanable funds in
India ?
(A) Hire purchase borrowers
(B) Private house purchasers
(C) Corporate businesses
(D) Farmers

136. Who amongst the following was impeached in England for acts committed as Governor General of India ?
(A) Wellesley
(B) Cavendish Bentinck
(C) Cornwallis
(D) Warren Hastings

137. The National Stock Exchange of India (NSEI) was inaugurated in—
(A) July 1992
(B) July 1993
(C) July 1994
(D) July 1995

138. One of the major towns of the Godavari region in the Satavahana kingdom was—
(A) Pratishthana
(B) Arikamedu
(C) Kokkhai
(D) Maski

139. In the Islamic (Mughal) buildings that came up in India, the elements of decoration did not include—
(A) Calligraphy
(B) Depiction of living beings
(C) Geometry
(D) Foliage

140. Jaya is the name of a high yielding variety of—
(A) Wheat
(B) Rice
(C) Bajra
(D) Cotton

Answers :

121. (A) 122. (A) 123. (A) 124. (B) 125. (D) 126. (C) 127. (B) 128. (B) 129. (D) 130. (A)
131. (C) 132. (C) 133. (B) 134. (B) 135. (C) 136. (D)
137. (A) November 1992 (Incorporation)
April 1993 (Recognition as a stock exchange)
June 1994 (Commenced operation in the
wholesale Debt Market segment in June 1994.138. (A) 139. (B) 140. (B)

Part-B(iv) English

141. Choose the word opposite in meaning to ‘Dormant’—
(A) Inert
(B) Deaf
(C) Indulgence
(D) Active

142. Choose the word opposite in meaning to ‘Malignant’—
(A) Virulent
(B) Benign
(C) Prudent
(D) Swallow

143. The word ‘Tacit’ means—
(A) Formal
(B) Fear
(C) Silent
(D) Celestial

144. The word ‘Enunciate’ means—
(A) Matter
(B) Express
(C) Evil
(D) Detest

145. ‘One who is well-versed in the science of languages is called a—
(A) Philosopher
(B) Theologist
(C) Philologist
(D) Zoologist

146. ‘A person who abstains from all kinds of alcoholic drinks’ is called a—
(A) Drunkard
(B) Angler
(C) Teetotaller
(D) Heretic

147. Choose the correctly spelt word—
(A) Coloqial
(B) Coloquial
(C) Colloqial
(D) Colloquial

148. Choose the misspelt word—
(A) Percieve
(B) Believe
(C) Relieve
(D) Receive

149. Choose what expresses the meaning of the phrase ‘a black sheep’—
(A) Stranger
(B) Convict
(C) Gentleman
(D) A family member one disapproves of

150. Choose what expresses the meaning of ‘pull the wool over one’s eye’—
(A) Delay
(B) Encourage
(C) Suppress
(D) Deceive

151. Choose the passive voice of—‘Who ate my cheese?’
(A) By whom is my cheese being eaten ?
(B) By whom was my cheese eaten ?
(C) By whom will my cheese be eaten ?
(D) By whom was my cheese been eaten ?

152. Choose the indirect speech of—My father said, ‘Study hard’—
(A) My father scolded me to study hard
(B) My father asked me to study hard
(C) My father requested me to study hard
(D) My father said that I must study hard

153. Choose the most appropriate word to fill in the blank in the sentence—
My father is angry …… me.
(A) On
(B) With
(C) In
(D) Over

154. Choose the most appropriate word to fill in the blank in the sentence—
Trust …… God, and do your duty.
(A) Of
(B) With
(C) In
(D) On

155. Who wrote the poem ‘Tintern Abbey’ ?
(A) Keats
(B) Shelley
(C) Wordsworth
(D) Byron

156. Who wrote the novel ‘A Tale of Two Cities’ ?
(A) Austen
(B) Dickens
(C) Hardy
(D) Bronte

157. Who wrote the play ‘All’s well that ends well’ ?
(A) Brecht
(B) Eugene O’Neill
(C) Shaw
(D) Shakespeare

158. Farmer Boldwood and Sergeant Troy are characters in the novel—
(A) The Mayor of Casterbridge
(B) Far from the Madding Crowd
(C) The Return of the Native
(D) Tess of the d’Urbervilles

159. Robert Browning was a poet of which period in literature ?
(A) Age of Reason
(B) Romantic Period
(C) Victorian Period
(D) Modern Period

160. Which of the following is not a language skill?
(A) Reading
(B) Writing
(C) Thinking
(D) Speaking

Answers :

141. (D) 142. (B) 143. (C) 144. (B) 145. (C) 146. (C) 147. (D)
148. (A) 149. (D) 150. (D) 151. (B) 152. (B)
153. (B) 154. (C) 155. (C) 156. (B) 157. (D)158. (B) 159. (C) 160. (C)