UPSC CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMINARY 2012 PAPER - I SOLVED PAPER

1.    With reference to National Rural Health Mission, which of the following are the jobs of 'ASHA', a trained community health worker?
    1.    Accompanying women to the health facility for antenatal care checkup
    2.    Using pregnancy test kits for early detection of pregnancy
    3.    Providing information on nutrition and immunization
    4.    Conducting the delivery of baby
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
    (a)    1, 2 and 3 Only
    (b)    2 and 4 Only
    (c)    1 and 3 Only
    (d)    1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: (A)

2.    Which of the following is/are the principal feature(s) of the Government of India Act, 1919?
    1.    Introduction of dyarchy in the executive government of the provinces
    2.    Introduction of separate communal electorates for Muslims
    3.    Devolution of legislative authority by the centre to the provinces
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    1 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (C)

3.    During Indian freedom struggle, the National Social Conference was formed. What was the reason for its formation?
    (a)    Different social reform groups or organizations of Bengal region united to form a single body to discuss the issues of larger interest and to prepare appropriate petitions/representations to the government.
    (b)    Indian National Congress did not want to include social reforms in its deliberations and decided to form a separate body for such a purpose
    (c)    Behramji Malabari and M. G. Ranade decided to bring together all the social reform groups of the country under one organization
    (d)    None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context

ANSWER: (C)

4.    Which of the following parties were established by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar?
    1.    The   Peasants   and   Workers Party of India
    2.    All   India   Scheduled   Castes Federation
    3.    The Independent Labour Party
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 and 2 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    1 and 3 only
    (d)   1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (B)

5.    Which of the following special powers have been conferred on the Rajya Sabha by the Constitution of India?
    (a)    To change the existing territory of a State and to change the name of a State
    (b)    To pass a resolution empowering the Parliament to make laws in the State List and to create one or more All India Services
    (c)    To amend the election procedure of the President and to determine the pension of the President after his/her retirement
    (d)    To determine the functions of the Election Commission and to determine the number of Election Commissioners

ANSWER: (B)

6.    How    does    the    National    Rural Livelihood Mission seek to improve livelihood options of rural poor?
    1.    By setting up a large number of new manufacturing industries and agribusiness centres in rural areas
    2.    By strengthening 'self-help groups' and providing skill development
    3.    By supplying seeds, fertilizers, diesel pump-sets and micro-irrigation equipment free of cost to farmers
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 and 2 only
    (b)    2 only
    (c)    1 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (B)

7.    The Multi-dimensional Poverty Index developed by Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative with UNDP support covers which of the following?
    1.    Deprivation of education, health, assets and services at household level
    2.    Purchasing power parity at national level
    3.    Extent of budget deficit and GDP growth rate at national level
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    1 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (A)

8.    Which of the following is /are among the noticeable features of the recommendations of the Thirteenth Finance Commission?
    1.    A design for the Goods and Services Tax, and a compensation package linked to adherence to the proposed design
    2.    A design for the creation of lakhs of jobs in the next ten years in consonance with India's demographic dividend
    3.    Devolution of a specified share of central taxes to local bodies as grants
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    1 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (A)

9. What is/are the recent policy initiative(s) of Government of India to promote the growth of manufacturing sector?
    1.    Setting up of National Investment and Manufacturing Zones
    2.    Providing the benefit of 'single window clearance'
    3.    Establishing the Technology Acquisition and Development Fund
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    1 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (D)

10. Which of the following are the methods of Parliamentary control over public finance in India?
    1.    Placing Annual Financial Statement before the Parliament
    2.    Withdrawal of moneys    from Consolidated Fund of    India only after passing    the Appropriation Bill
    3.    Provisions of supplementary grants and vote-on-account
    4.    A periodic or at least a mid-year review of programme of the Government against macroeconomic forecasts and expenditure by a Parliamentary Budget Office
    5.    Introducing Finance Bill in the Parliament
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1, 2, 3 and 5 only
    (b)    1, 2 and 4 only
    (c)    3, 4 and 5 only
    (d)    1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

ANSWER: (D)

11.    Mahatma   Gandhi   undertook   fast unto death in 1932, mainly because
    (a)    Round Table Conference failed to satisfy Indian political aspirations
    (b)    Congress and Muslim League had differences of opinion
    (c)    Ramsay Macdonald announced the Communal Award
    (d)    None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context

ANSWER: (C)

12.    With reference to Ryotwari Settlement, consider the following statements :
    1.    The rent was paid directly by the peasants to the Government.
    2.    The Government gave Pattas to the Ryots.
    3.    The lands were surveyed and assessed before being taxed.
    Which   of   the   statements   given above is/are correct?
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    1 and 2 only
    (c)    1, 2 and 3
    (d)    None

ANSWER: (C)

13.    Consider the following    specific stages of demographic transition associated    with    economic development :
    1.    Low birthrate with low death rate
    2.    High birthrate with high death rate
    3.    High birthrate with low death rate
    Select the correct order of the above stages using the codes given below :
    (a)    1, 2, 3
    (b)    2, 1, 3
    (c)    2, 3, 1
    (d)    3, 2, 1

ANSWER: (C)

14.    In  India,   in   the   overall   Index  of Industrial Production, the Indices of Eight Core Industries have a combined weight of 37-90%. Which of the following are among those Eight Core Industries?
    1.    Cement
    2.    Fertilizers
    3.    Natural gas
    4.    Refinery products
    5.    Textiles
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 and 5 only
    (b)    2, 3 and 4 only
    (c)    1, 2, 3 and 4 only
    (d)    1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

ANSWER: (C)

15.    Which of the following provisions of the  Constitution of India have  a bearing on Education?
    1.    Directive Principles of State Policy
    2.    Rural and Urban Local Bodies
    3.    Fifth Schedule
    4.    Sixth Schedule
    5.    Seventh Schedule
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 and 2 only
    (b)    3, 4 and 5 only
    (c)    1, 2 and 5 only
    (d)    1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

ANSWER: (D)

16.    Government of India encourages the cultivation of 'sea buckthorn'. What is the importance of this plant?
    1.     It helps in controlling soil erosion and in preventing desertification.
    2.    It is a rich source of biodiesel.
    3.    It has nutritional value and is well-adapted to live in cold areas of high altitudes.
    4.    Its timber is of great commercial value.
    Which   of   the   statements   given above is /are correct?
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2, 3 and 4 only
    (c)    1 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: (D)


17.    Which of the following is the chief characteristic of 'mixed farming'?
    (a)    Cultivation of both cash crops and food crops
    (b)    Cultivation of two or more crops in the same field
    (c)    Rearing of animals and cultivation of crops together
    (d)    None of the above

ANSWER: (C)

18.    A particular State in India has the following characteristics :
    1.    It is located on the same latitude which passes through northern Rajasthan.
    2.    It has over 80% of its area under forest cover.
    3.    Over 12% of forest cover constitutes Protected Area Network in this State.
    Which one among the following States has all the above characteristics?
    (a)    Arunachal Pradesh
    (b)    Assam
    (c)    Himachal Pradesh
    (d)    Uttarakhand

ANSWER: (A)

19.     Consider   the   following   crops   of India :
    1.    Cowpea
    2.    Green gram
    3.    Pigeon pea
    Which of the above is/are used as pulse, fodder and green manure?
    (a)    1 and 2 only
    (b)    2 only
    (c)    1 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (D)

20.    Consider the following factors:
    1.    Rotation of the Earth
    2.    Air pressure and wind
    3.    Density of ocean water
    4.    Revolution of the Earth
    Which of the above factors influence the ocean currents?
    (a)    1 and 2 only
    (b)    1, 2 and 3
    (c)    1 and 4
    (d)    2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: (B)

21.    With reference to the wetlands of India, consider the following statements :
    1.    The country's total geographical area under the category of wetlands is recorded more in Gujarat as compared to other States.
    2.    In India, the total geographical area   of   coastal   wetlands larger   than   that   of wetlands.
    Which   of   the   statements given above is/are correct?
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2
    (d)    Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER: (C)

22.    Consider   the    following   crops    of India :
    1.    Groundnut
    2.    Sesamum
    3.    Pearl millet
    Which of the above is/are predomi-nantly rainfed crop/crops?
    (a)    1 and 2 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3    

ANSWER: (D)

23.    When you travel in Himalayas, you will see the following :
    1.    Deep gorges
    2.    U-turn river courses
    3.    Parallel mountain ranges
    4.    Steep gradients causing land-sliding
    Which of the above can be said to be the evidences for Himalayas being young fold mountains?
    (a)    1 and 2 only
    (b)    1, 2 and 4 only
    (c)    3 and 4 only
    (d)    1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: (D)

24.    Normally, the temperature decreases with the increase in height from the Earth's surface, because
    1.    the atmosphere can be heated upwards only from the Earth's surface
    2.    there is more moisture in the upper atmosphere
    3.    the air is less dense in the upper atmosphere
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    1 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (C)

25.    The    acidification    of    oceans    is increasing. Why is this phenomenon a cause of concern?
    1.    The growth and survival of calcareous phytoplankton will be adversely affected.
    2.    The   growth   and   survival   of coral  reefs  will  be  adversely affected.
    3.    The survival of some animals that have phytoplanktonic larvae will be adversely affected.
    4.    The cloud seeding and formation of clouds will be adversely affected.
    Which   of   the   statements   given above is /are correct?
    (a)    1, 2 and 3 only
    (b)    2 only
    (c)    1 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: (D)

26. In India, other than ensuring that public funds are used efficiently and for intended purpose, what is the importance of the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)?
    1.    CAG exercises exchequer control    on    behalf    of    the Parliament when the President of India declares national emergency/financial emergency.
    2.    CAG reports on the execution of projects or programmes by the ministries are discussed by the Public Accounts Committee.
    3.    Information from CAG reports can be used by investigating agencies to press charges against those who have violated the law while managing public finances.
    4.    While dealing with the audit and accounting of government companies, CAG has certain judicial powers for prosecuting those who violate the law.
    Which   of   the   statements   given above is/are correct?
    (a)    1, 3 and 4 only
    (b)    2 only
    (c)    2 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: (C)

27.    The endeavour of 'Janani Suraksha Yojana' Programme is
    1.    to promote institutional deliveries
    2.    to provide monetary assistance to the mother to meet the cost of delivery
    3.    to provide for wage loss due to pregnancy and confinement
    Which   of   the   statements   given above is /are correct?
    (a)    1 and 2 only
    (b)    2 only
    (c)    3 only
    (d)   1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (A)

28.    The Prime Minister of India, at the time of his/her appointment
    (a)    need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a member of one of the" Houses within six months
    (b)    need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a member of the Lok Sabha within six months
    (c)    must be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament
    (d)    must be a member of the Lok Sabha

ANSWER: (A)

29.    With reference to the  Delimitation Commission, consider the following statements :
    1.    The orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be challenged in a Court of Law.
    2.    When the orders of the Delimitation Commission are laid before the Lok Sabha or State Legislative Assembly, they cannot effect any modifications in the orders.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2
    (d)    Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER: (A)

30.    Consider the following:
    1.    Hotels and restaurants
    2.    Motor transport undertakings
    3.    Newspaper establishments
    4.    Private medical institutions
    The employees of which of the above can have the 'Social Security' coverage under Employees' State Insurance Scheme?
    (a)    1, 2 and 3 only
    (b)    4 only
    (c)    1, 3 and 4 only
    (d)    1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: (D)

31.    According   to   the   Constitution   of India, it is the duty of the President of India to cause to be laid before the Parliament which of the following?
    1.    The Recommendations of the Union Finance Commission
    2.    The Report of the Public Accounts Committee
    3.    The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General
    4.    The Report of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 and 4 only
    (c)    1, 3 and 4 only
    (d)    1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: (C)

32.    A deadlock between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha calls for a joint sitting of the Parliament during the passage of
    1.    Ordinary Legislation
    2.    Money Bill
    3.    Constitution Amendment Bill
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    1 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (A)

33.     How do District Rural Development Agencies (DRDAs) help in the reduction of rural poverty in India?
    1.    DRDAs act as Panchayati Raj Institutions in certain specified backward regions of the country.
    2.    DRDAs undertake area-specific scientific study of the causes of poverty and malnutrition and prepare detailed remedial measures.
    3.    DRDAs secure inter-sectoral and inter-departmental coordination and cooperation for effective implementation of anti-poverty programmes.
    4.    DRDAs watch over and ensure effective utilization of the funds intended for anti-poverty programmes.
    Which   of  the   statements   given above is/are correct?
    (a)    1, 2 and 3 only
    (b)    3 and 4 only
    (c)    4 only
    (d)    1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: (D) 


34. Which of the following is/are among the Fundamental Duties of citizens laid down in the Indian Constitution?
    1.    To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture
    2.    To protect the weaker sections from social injustice
    3.    To develop the scientific temper and spirit of inquiry
    4.    To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 and 2 only
    (b)    2 only
    (c)    1, 3 and 4 only
    (d)    1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: (C)

35.     What is the provision to safeguard the autonomy of the Supreme Court of India?
    1.    While appointing the Supreme Court Judges, the President of India has to consult the Chief Justice of India.
    2.    The Supreme Court Judges can be removed by the Chief Justice of India only.
    3.    The salaries of the Judges are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India to which the legislature does not have to vote.
    4.    All appointments of officers and staffs of the Supreme Court of India are made by the Government only after consulting the Chief Justice of India.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a)    1 and 3 only
    (b)    3 and 4 only
    (c)    4 only
    (d)    1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: (A)

36.     To meet its rapidly growing energy demand, some opine that India should pursue research and development on thorium as the future fuel of nuclear energy. In this context, what advantage does thorium hold over uranium?
    1.    Thorium is far more abundant in nature than uranium.  
    2.    On the basis of per unit mass of mined mineral, thorium can generate more energy compared to natural uranium.
    3.    Thorium produces less harmful waste compared to uranium.
    Which   of   the   statements   given above is/are correct?
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    1 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (D)

37.     The increasing amount of carbon dioxide in the air is slowly raising the temperature of the atmosphere, because it absorbs
    (a)    the water vapour of the air and retains its heat
    (b)    the ultraviolet part of the solar radiation
    (c)    all the solar radiations
    (d)    the infrared part of the solar radiation

ANSWER: (D)

38.     Which one of the following sets of elements was primarily responsible for the origin of life on the Earth?
    (a)    Hydrogen, Oxygen, Sodium
    (b)    Carbon, Hydrogen, Nitrogen
    (c)    Oxygen, Calcium, Phosphorus
    (d)    Carbon, Hydrogen, Potassium

ANSWER: (B)

39.     What are the reasons for the people's resistance to the introduction of Bt brinjal in India?
    1.    Bt brinjal has been created by inserting a gene from a soil fungus into its genome.
    2.    The seeds of Bt brinjal are terminator seeds and therefore, the farmers have to buy the seeds before every season from the seed companies.
    3.    There is an apprehension that the consumption of Bt brinjal may have adverse impact on health.
    4.    There is some concern that the introduction of Bt brinjal may have adverse effect on the biodiversity.
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1, 2 and 3 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    3 and 4 only
    (d)    1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: (C)

40.    Other than resistance to pests, what are the prospects for which genetically engineered plants have been created?
    1.    To enable them to withstand drought
    2.    To increase the nutritive value of the produce
    3.    To enable them to grow and do photosynthesis in spaceships and space stations
    4.    To increase their shelf life
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 and 2 only
    (b)    3 and 4 only
    (c)    1, 2 and 4 only
    (d)    1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: (C)

41.    Consider the following statements :
    The most effective contribution made by Dadabhai Naoroji to the cause of Indian National Movement was that he
    1.    exposed    the    economic exploitation of India by the British
    2.    interpreted the ancient Indian texts and restored the self-confidence of Indians
    3.    stressed the need for eradication of all the social evils before anything else
    Which   of   the   statements   given above is/are correct?
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    1 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (A)

42.     With reference to Dhrupad, one of the major traditions of India that has been kept alive for centuries, which of the following statements are correct?
    1.    Dhrupad originated and developed in the Rajput kingdoms during the Mughal period.
    2.    Dhrupad is primarily a devotional and spiritual music.
    3.    Dhrupad Alap uses Sanskrit syllables from Mantras.
    Select   the   correct   answer  using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 and 2 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    1, 2 and 3
    (d)    None of the above is correct

ANSWER: (C)

43. How do you distinguish between Kuchipudi and Bharatanatyam dances?
    1.    Dancers occasionally speaking dialogues is found in Kuchipudi dance but not in Bharatanatyam.
    2.    Dancing on the brass plate by keeping the feet on its edges is a feature of Bharatanatyam but Kuchipudi dance does not have such a form of movements.
    Which   of   the   statements   given above is/are correct?
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 only
    (c)        Both 1 and 2
    (d)       Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER: (A)

44.     With reference to the religious history of medieval India, the Sufi mystics were known to pursue which of the following practices?
    1.    Meditation and control of breath
    2.    Severe ascetic exercises in a lonely place
    3.    Recitation of holy songs to arouse a state of ecstasy in their audience
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 and 2 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (D)

45.    The Rowlatt Act aimed at
    (a)     compulsory economic support to war efforts
    (b)     imprisonment without trial and summary procedures for trial
    (c)    suppression of the Khilafat Movement
    (d)    imposition of restrictions on freedom of the press

ANSWER: (B)

46.    The Lahore Session of the Indian National  Congress   (1929)  is  very important in history, because
    1.    the Congress passed a resolution demanding complete independence
    2.    the rift between the extremists and moderates was resolved in that Session
    3.     a resolution was passed rejecting the two-nation theory in that Session
    Which   of   the   statements   given above is/are correct?
    (a)    I only
    (b)    2 and 3
    (c)    1 and 3
    (d)    None of the above

ANSWER: (A)

47.     Lord Buddha's image is sometimes shown with the hand gesture called 'Bhumisparsha Mudra'. It symbolizes
    (a)    Buddha's calling of the Earth to watch over Mara and to prevent Mara from disturbing his meditation
    (b)    Buddha's calling of the Earth to witness his purity and chastity despite the temptations of Mara
    (c)    Buddha's reminder to his followers that they all arise from the Earth and finally dissolve into the Earth, and thus this life is transitory
    (d)    Both the statements (a) and (b) are correct in this context

ANSWER: (B) 


48.    The religion of early Vedic Aryans was primarily of
    (a)    Bhakti
    (b)    image worship and Yajnas
    (c)    worship of nature and Yajnas
    (d)    worship of nature and Bhakti

ANSWER: (C)

49.     Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Brahmo Samaj?
    1.    It opposed idolatry.
    2.    It denied the need for a priestly class for interpreting the religious texts.
    3.    It popularized the doctrine that the Vedas are infallible.
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    1 and 2 only
    (c)    3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (D)

50.     The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) acts as a bankers' bank. This would imply which of the following?
    1.    Other    banks     retain    their    deposits with the RBI.
    2.    The RBI lends  funds  to  the  commercial banks in times of need.
    3.    The RBI advises the commercial banks on monetary matters.
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    2 and 3 only
    (b)    1 and 2 only
    (c)    1 and 3 only
    (d)     1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (D)

51. Under which of the following circumstances may 'capital gains' arise?
    1.    When there is an increase in the sales of a product
    2.    When there is a. natural increase in the value of the property owned
    3.     When you purchase a painting and there is a growth in its value due to increase in its popularity
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    2 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (B)

52.     Which of the following measures would result in an increase in the money supply in the economy?
    1.    Purchase of government securities from the public by the Central Bank
    2.    Deposit      of     currency      in commercial    banks    by    the public
    3.    Borrowing by the government from the Central Bank
    4.    Sale of government securities to the public by the Central Bank
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 and 4 only
    (c)    1 and 3
    (d)    2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: (C)

53.    Which of the following would include Foreign Direct Investment in India?
    1.     Subsidiaries        of companies in India
    2.    Majority foreign equity holding in Indian companies
    3.    Companies exclusively financed by foreign companies
    4.    Portfolio investment
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1, 2, 3 and 4
    (b)    2 and 4 only
    (c)    1 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3 only

ANSWER: (D)

54.  Consider the following statements:
    The price of any currency in international market is decided by the
    1.    World Bank
    2.    demand for goods/services provided by the country concerned
    3.    stability of the government of the concerned country
    4.    economic potential of the country in question
    Which of the statements given above are correct?
    (a)    1, 2, 3 and 4
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    3 and 4 only
    (d)    1 and 4 only

ANSWER: (B)

55. The basic aim of Lead Bank Scheme is that
    (a)    big banks should try to open offices in each district
    (b)    there should be stiff competition among the various nationalized banks
    (c)    individual banks should adopt particular districts for intensive development
    (d)    all the banks should make intensive efforts to mobilize deposits

ANSWER: (C)

56.  Consider the following :
    1.    Assessment of land revenue on the basis of nature of the soil and the quality of crops
    2.    Use   of   mobile   cannons   in warfare
    3.    Cultivation of tobacco and red chillies
    Which of the above was/were introduced into India by the English?
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    1 and 2
    (c)    2 and 3
    (d)    None

ANSWER: (D)

57. With reference to the guilds (Shreni) of ancient India that played a very important role in the country's economy, which of the following statements is /are correct?
    1.    Every guild was registered with the central authority of the State and the king was the chief administrative authority on them.
    2.    The wages, rules of work, standards and prices were fixed by the guild.
    3.    The guild had judicial powers over its own members.
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 and 2 only
    (b)    3 only
    (c)    2 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (C)

58.     The distribution of powers between the Centre and the States in the Indian Constitution is based on the scheme provided in the
    (a)    Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909
    (b)    Montagu-Chelmsford Act, 1919
    (c)    Government of India Act, 1935
    (d)   Indian Independence Act, 1947

ANSWER: (C)

59.    Despite having large reserves of coal, why does India import millions of tonnes of coal?
    1.    It is the policy of India to save its own coal reserves for future, and import it from other countries for the present use.
    2.    Most of the power plants in India are coal-based and they are not able to get sufficient supplies of coal from within the country.
    3.    Steel companies need large quantity of coking coal which has to be imported.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    1 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (B)

60.    A person stood alone in a desert on a dark night and wanted to reach his village which was situated 5 km east of the point where he was standing. He had no instruments to find the direction but he located the polestar. The most convenient way now to reach his village is to walk in the
    (a)    direction facing the polestar
    (b)    direction opposite to the polestar
    (c)    direction keeping the polestar to his left
    (d)    direction keeping the polestar to his right

ANSWER: (C)

61.    Recently, there has been a concern over the short supply of a group of elements called 'rare earth metals'. Why?
    1.    China, which is the largest producer of these elements, has imposed some restrictions on their export.
    2.    Other than China, Australia, Canada and Chile, these elements are not found in any country.
    3.    Rare earth metals are essential for the manufacture of various kinds of electronic items and there is a growing demand for these elements.
    Which   of   the   statements given above is/are correct?
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    1 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (C)

62.    Consider the following areas:
    1.    Bandipur
    2.    Bhitarkanika
    3.    Manas  
    4.    Sunderbans
    Which  of the above are Tiger Reserves?
    (a)    1 and 2 only
    (b)    1, 3 and 4 only
    (c)    2, 3 and 4 only
    (d)    l, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: (B)

63.    Consider the following statements :
    1.    The duration of the monsoon decreases from southern India to northern India.
    2.     The amount of annual rainfall in the northern plains of India decreases from east to west.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2
    (d)    Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER: (C)

64.    Which one of the following is the characteristic climate of the Tropical Savannah Region?
    (a)    Rainfall throughout the year
    (b)    Rainfall in winter only
    (c)    An extremely short dry season
    (d)    A definite dry and wet season

ANSWER: (D)

65.    In which one among the following categories of protected areas in India are local people not allowed to collect and use the biomass?
    (a)   Biosphere Reserves
    (b)   National Parks
    (c)    Wetlands declared under Ramsar Convention
    (d)    Wildlife Sanctuaries

ANSWER: (B)

66.    Consider   the   following   kinds   of organisms :
    1.    Bat
    2.    Bee
    3.    Bird
    Which of the above is/are pollinating agent/agents?
    (a)    1 and 2 only
    (b)    2 only
    (c)    1 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (D)


67.    Which one of the following groups of animals belongs to the category of endangered species?
    (a)     Great Indian Bustard, Musk Deer, Red Panda and Asiatic Wild Ass
    (b)    Kashmir  Stag,   Cheetal,   Blue Bull and Great Indian Bustard
    (c)    Snow Leopard, Swamp Deer, Rhesus Monkey and Saras (Crane)
    (d)    Lion-tailed Macaque, Blue Bull, Hanuman Langur and Cheetal

ANSWER: (A)

68.    Consider the following statements :
    If there were no phenomenon  of capillarity
    1.    it would be difficult to use a kerosene lamp
    2.    one would not be able to use a straw to consume a soft drink
    3.    the blotting paper would fail to function
    4.    the   big   trees   that   we   see around would not have grown on the Earth
    Which   of   the   statements   given above are correct?
    (a)    1, 2 and 3 only
    (b)    1, 3 and 4 only
    (c)    2 and 4 only
    (d)    1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: (B)

69.    The    Millennium    Ecosystem Assessment describes the following major categories of ecosystem services-provisioning, supporting, regulating, preserving and cultural. Which one of the following is supporting service?
    (a)    Production of food and water
    (b)    Control of climate and disease
    (c)    Nutrient cycling and crop pollination
    (d)    Maintenance of diversity

ANSWER: (C)

70.    What is the difference between the antelopes Oryx and Chiru?
    (a)    Oryx is adapted to live in hot and arid areas whereas Chiru is adapted to live in steppes and semi-desert areas of cold high mountains
    (b)    Oryx is poached for its antlers whereas Chiru is poached for its musk
    (c)    Oryx exists in western India only whereas Chiru exists in north-east India only
    (d)    None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct

ANSWER: (A)

71.    Which of the following can be threats to the biodiversity of a geographical area?
    1.    Global warming
    2.    Fragmentation of habitat
    3.    Invasion of alien species
    4.    Promotion of vegetarianism
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1, 2 and 3 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    1 and 4 only
    (d)    1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: (A)

72.    Consider the following :
    1.    Black-necked crane
    2.    Cheetah
    3.    Flying squirrel
    4.    Snow leopard
    Which of the above are naturally found in India?
    (a)    1, 2 and 3 only
    (b)    1, 3 and 4 only
    (c)    2 and 4 only
    (d)    1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: (B)

73.    Consider the following agricultural practices :
    1.    Contour bunding
    2.    Relay cropping
    3.    Zero tillage
    In the context of global climate change, which of the above helps/help in carbon seques-tration/storage in the soil?
    (a)    1 and 2 only
    (b)    3 only
    (c)    1, 2 and 3
    (d)    None of them

ANSWER: (B) 

74. What would happen if phytoplankton of an ocean is completely destroyed for some reason?
    1.    The ocean as a carbon sink would be adversely affected.
    2.     The food chains in the ocean      would be adversely affected.
    3.    The   density  of  ocean   water would drastically decrease.
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 and 2 only
    (b)    2 only
    (c)    3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (A)

75.     Vultures which used to be very common in Indian countryside some years ago are rarely seen nowadays. This is attributed to
    (a)   the destruction of their nesting sites by new invasive species
    (b)     a drug used by cattle owners      for    treating   their   diseased        cattle
    (c)       scarcity of food available  to them
    (d)       a widespread,  persistent and fatal disease among them

ANSWER: (B)

76.    In   the   areas   covered   under   the Panchayat (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996, what is the role/power of Gram Sabha?
    1.    Gram Sabha has the power to prevent alienation of land in the Scheduled Areas.
    2.    Gram Sabha has the ownership of minor forest produce.
    3.    Recommendation of Gram Sabha is required for granting prospecting licence or mining lease for any mineral in the Scheduled Areas.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    1 and 2 only
    (c)    2 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (B)

77.    In   the   Parliament   of   India,   the purpose of an adjournment motion is
    (a)    to allow  a   discussion   on  a definite matter of urgent public importance
    (b)    to let opposition members collect information from the ministers
    (c)    to allow a reduction of specific amount in demand for grant
    (d)    to postpone the proceedings to check the inappropriate or violent behaviour on the part of some members

ANSWER: (A)

78.    How    does    National    Biodiversity Authority (NBA) help in protecting the Indian agriculture?
    1.    NBA checks the biopiracy and protects the indigenous and traditional genetic resources.
    2.    NBA directly monitors and supervises the scientific research on genetic modifi-cation of crop plants.
    3.    Application for Intellectual Property Rights related to genetic/biological resources cannot be made without the approval of NBA.
    Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
    (a)    1 -only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    1 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (C)

79.    The   National  Green  Tribunal  Act, 2010 was enacted in consonance with which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India?
    1.    Right to healthy environment, construed as a part of Right to life under Article 21
    2.    Provision of grants for raising the level of administration in the Scheduled Areas for the welfare of Scheduled Tribes under Article 275(1)
    3.    Powers and functions of Gram Sabha as mentioned under Article 243(A)
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    1 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (A)

80.     If National Water Mission is properly and completely implemented, how will it impact the country?
    1.    Part of the water needs of urban areas will be met through recycling of wastewater.
    2.    The water requirements of coastal cities with inadequate alternative sources of water will be met by adopting appropriate technologies that allow for the use of ocean water.
    3.    All the rivers of Himalayan origin will be linked to the rivers of peninsular India,
    4.    The expenses incurred by farmers for digging bore-wells and for installing motors and pump-sets to draw groundwater will be completely reimbursed by the Government.
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    1 and 2 only
    (c)    3 and 4 only
    (d)    1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: (B)

81.    Consider   the   following   provisions under the Directive Principles of State Policy as enshrined in the Constitution of India :
    1.    Securing for citizens of India a uniform civil code
    2.    Organizing village Panchayats
    3.    Promoting cottage industries in     rural areas
    4.    Securing for all the workers reasonable leisure and cultural opportunities
    Which of the above are the Gandhian Principles that are reflected in the Directive Principles of State Policy?
    (a)    1, 2 and 4 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    1, 3 and 4 only
    (d)    1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: (B)

82.    Consider the following statements:
    1.    Union Territories are not represented in the Rajya Sabha.
    2.    It is within the purview of the Chief Election Commissioner to adjudicate the election disputes.
    3.    According to the Constitution of India, the Parliament consists of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha only.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 and 3
    (c)    1 and 3
    (d)    None

ANSWER: (D)

83.    With reference to consumers' rights/ privileges under the provisions of law in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?
    1.    Consumers are empowered to take samples for food testing.
    2.    When a consumer files a complaint in any consumer forum, no fee is required to be paid.
    3.    In case of death of a consumer, his/her legal heir can file a complaint in the consumer forum on his/her behalf.
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    1 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (C)

84.    Regarding the office of the Lok Sabha Speaker, consider the following statements:
    1.    He/She holds the office during the pleasure of the President.
    2.    He/She need not be a member of the House at the time of his/her election but has to become a member of the House within six months from the date of his/her election.
    3.    If he/she intends to resign, the letter   of  his/her   resignation has to be addressed to the Deputy Speaker.
    Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
    (a)    1 and 2 only
    (b)    3 only
    (c)    1, 2 and 3
    (d)    None

ANSWER: (B)

85.    Which of the following are included in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
    1.    A dispute between the Government of India and one or more States
    2.    A dispute regarding elections to either House of the Parliament or that of Legislature of a State
    3.    A dispute between the Government of India and a Union Territory
    4.    A dispute between two or more States
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 and 2
    (b)    2 and 3
    (c)    1 and 4
    (d)    3 and 4

ANSWER: (C)

86.    Consider   the   following   kinds    of organisms :
    1.    Bacteria
    2.    Fungi
    3.    Flowering plants
    Some species of which of the above kinds of organisms are employed as biopesticides?
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    1 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (D)

87.    Biomass gasification is considered to be one of the sustainable solutions to the power crisis in India. In this context, which of the following statements is/are correct?
    1.    Coconut shells, groundnut shells and rice husk can be used in biomass gasification.
    2.    The combustible gases generated from biomass gasification consist of hydrogen and carbon dioxide only.
    3.    The combustible gases generated from biomass gasification can be used for direct heat generation but not in internal combustion engines.
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    1 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (A)

88.    What is the role of ultraviolet (UV) radiation in the water purification systems?
    1.    It inactivates /kills the harmful microorganisms in water.
    2.    It removes all the undesirable odours from the water.
    3.    It quickens the sedimentation of solid particles, removes turbidity and improves the clarity of water.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    1 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (A)

89.    Graphene is   frequently   in   news recently. What is its importance?
    1.    It is a two-dimensional material and has good electrical conductivity.
    2.    It is one of the thinnest but strongest materials tested so far.
    3.    It is entirely made of silicon and has high optical transparency.
    4.    It can be used as 'conducting electrodes' required for touch screens, LCDs and organic LEDs.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?
    (a)    1 and 2 only
    (b)    3 and 4 only
    (c)    1, 2 and 4 only
    (d)    1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: (C)

90.    Lead, ingested or inhaled, is a health hazard. After the addition of lead to petrol has been banned, what still are the sources of lead poisoning?
    1.    Smelting units
    2.    Pens and pencils
    3.    Paints
    4.    Hair oils and cosmetics
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1, 2 and 3 only
    (b)    1 and 3 only
    (c)    2 and 4 only
    (d)    1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: (D)

91.    With    reference    to    'stem    cells', frequently   in   the   news,    which of the following statements is/are correct?
    1.    Stem cells can be derived from mammals only.
    2.    Stem  cells  can  be  used  for screening new drugs.
    3.    Stem  cells  can be  used  for medical therapies.
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 and 2 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (B)

92.    Consider the following statements :
    Chlorofluorocarbons, known as ozone-depleting substances, are used
    1.    in   the   production  of plastic foams
    2.    in the production of tubeless tyres
    3.    in cleaning certain electronic components
    4.    as    pressurizing    agents    in aerosol cans
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a)    1, 2 and 3 only
    (b)    4 only
    (c)     1, 3 and 4 only
    (d)    1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: (C)

93.    A team of scientists at Brookhaven National Laboratory including those from India created the heaviest anti-matter (anti-helium nucleus). What is/are the implication/ implications of the creation of anti-matter?
    1.    It will make mineral prospecting and oil exploration easier and cheaper.
    2.    It will help probe the possibility of the existence of stars and galaxies made of anti-matter.
    3.    It will help understand the evolution of the universe.
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (D)

94.    Which of the following is /are cited by the scientists as evidence/ evidences for the continued expansion of universe?
    1.    Detection of microwaves in space
    2.    Observation of redshift phenomenon in space
    3.    Movement of asteroids in space
    4.    Occurrence of supernova explosions in space
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 and 2
    (b)    2 only
    (c)      1, 3 and 4
    (d)     None of the above can be cited as evidence

ANSWER: (B)

95.    Electrically  charged  particles   from space travelling at speeds of several hundred km/sec can severely harm living beings if they reach the surface of the Earth. What prevents them from reaching the surface of the Earth?
    (a)    The Earth's magnetic field diverts them towards its poles
    (b)    Ozone layer around the Earth reflects them back to outer space
    (c)    Moisture in the upper layers of atmosphere prevents them from reaching the surface of the Earth
    (d)      None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct

ANSWER: (A)

96.    With   reference    to    the    scientific progress of ancient India, which of the statements given below are correct?
    1.    Different kinds of specialized surgical instruments were in common use by 1st century AD.
    2.    Transplant of internal organs in the human body had begun by the beginning of 3rd century AD.
    3.    The concept of sine of an angle was known in 5th century AD.
    4.    The concept of cyclic quadrilaterals was known in 7th century AD.
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 and 2 only
    (b)    3 and 4 only
    (c)    1, 3 and 4 only
    (d)    1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: (C) 


97.    With reference to the history. of ancient India, which of the following was/were common to both Buddhism and Jainism?
    1.    Avoidance   of   extremities   of penance and enjoyment
    2.    Indifference to the authority of the Vedas
    3.    Denial of efficacy of rituals
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 and 3 only
    (c)    1 and 3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: (B)

98.    Which of the following can be said to be essentially the parts of Inclusive Governance?
    1.    Permitting the Non-Banking Financial Companies to do banking
    2.    Establishing effective District Planning Committees in all the districts
    3.    Increasing the government spending on public health
    4.    Strengthening the Mid-day Meal Scheme
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    (a)    1 and 2 only
    (b)    3 and 4 only
    (c)    2, 3 and 4 only
    (d)    1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: (D)

99.    The  Nagara,  the  Dravida and  the Vesara are the
    (a)    three main racial groups of the Indian subcontinent
    (b)    three main linguistic divisions into which the languages of India can be classified
    (c)     three   main   styles   of  Indian temple architecture
    (d)    three main musical Gharanas prevalent in India

ANSWER: (C)

100.    The Congress ministries resigned in the seven provinces in 1939, because
    (a)    the Congress could not form ministries in the other four provinces
    (b)    emergence of a left wing' in the Congress made the working of the ministries impossible
    (c)    there were widespread communal disturbances in their provinces
    (d)       None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct

ANSWER: (D)

VIJAYA BANK RECRUITMENT OF PROBATIONARY ASSISTANT MANAGER

Vijaya Bank, a nationalized Bank in India has given a recruitment notification for the recruitment Post of a 894 Probationary Assistant Manager vacancies in Junior Management Grade Scale – I. Candidates who have taken the Common Written Examination (CWE) for Probationary Officers/Management Trainees conducted by IBPS in 2011-2012 and obtained a valid IBPS CWE-PO/MT-2011 Score Card are only eligible to apply.  Eligible candidates may apply online from 16.05.2012 to 02.06.2012.

Jobs Title: Vijaya Bank Recruitment 2012

Jobs Position: Probationary Assistant Manager JMGS I

Scale/Grade: JMGS I

Total Posts: 894 Posts

Selection Process: Eligible candidates will be selected on the basis of TWS in IBPS CWE followed by Group Discussion and/or Personal Interview.

Age Limit:

1.    Candidates age must be between 20 years to 30 years.

2.    Cutoff date for determining age limit would be 01.07.2011. (Age relaxations will be extended as per Govt. rules).

Educational Qualification: Candidates must possess Graduate Degree in any discipline from a recognized university.

IBPS Score Card Minimum Weighted Score: Candidates must have the minimum TWSS in IBPS CWE. The minimum TWS score must be 138 for General candidates and 113 for SC/ST/OBC/PWD candidates.

Application Fee Details: Applicants need to pay application fee of Rs. 200/- (RS. 50/- for SC/ST/PWD candidates) in form of Challan downloaded from the website at any branch of Vijaya Bank s in Account No. 900900022503006 towards “VIJAYA BANK REC_PROJ 2012-13 Scale-I”.

Important Dates:
Starting Date for Online Registration: 16.05.2012
Last Date for Online Registration: 02.06.2012
Dates for Depositing Fee: from 16.05.2012 to 30.05.2012
Last Date for Reprint: 04.06.2012

How to Apply: Candidates need to apply for the post only through online mode from 16.05.2012 to 02.06.2012. After submission of online application candidates are asked to take the print of application form and retain it along with system generated Registration Number and Password for further use.

Instructions for Online Application:
1. Log on to www.vijayabank.com and select the ‘Recruitment’ link to open the ongoing recruitment drive notifications.
2. Select the link Recruitment Notification No. 01-2012 which will open the current notification.
3. Select the ‘Click Here to Download Payment Challan’ link to download and take print of Payment Challan.
4. Make payment at any Vijaya Bank branch and revisit the Bank’s website and this time select the ‘Click Here to Apply Online’.
5. Select ‘Apply Online’ link and fill all marked details carefully, check once to ascertain accuracy and click on ‘Submit’ button.
6. Take print of Application Form and retain it to be produces at the time of GD and/or Interview.

  CLICK HERE FOR DETAILED ADVERTISEMENT.

 

  CLICK HERE TO DOWNLOAD PAYMENT CHALLAN.

 

  CLICK HERE TO APPLY ONLINE.

Quantitative Aptitude for Bak Exams

Directions (Q. 1-9): What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions?

1. -84 x 29 + 365 = ?
   
(1) 2436    

(2) 2801    

(3) 2801
   
(4) 2071    

(5) None of these

2. (21.69)² - √324 =?
(1) 440.4615    

(2) 425.4561    

(3) 452.4561

(4) 442.4651    

(5) None ofthese

3. (800 ÷ 64) x (1296 ÷ 36) = ?

(1) 420    

(2) 460    

(3) 500

(4) 540    

(5) None of these

4. (42 x 229)÷(9261)^1⁄3 =?

(1) 452    

(2) 448    

(3) 458

(4) 456    

(5) None of these

5. (35423 +7104 +41720)-(317 x 89)=?

(1) 28213    

(2) 84307    

(3) 50694

(4) 54096    

(5) None of these

6. (9% of 386) x (6.5% of 144) = ?

(1) 340.1664    

(2) 325.1664    

(3) 333.3333
   
(4) 328.0065    

(5) None of these

7 . 4+4.44+44.4+4.04+444=?
(1) 500.88    

(2) 577.2    

(3) 495.22

(4) 472.88    

(5) None of these

8. 3√? = (36x24)÷9

(1) 884736    

(2) 804036    

(3) 854734

(4) 814736    

(5) None of these

9. (43% of 2750)- (38% of 2990) = ?

(1) 49.3    

(2) 44.7    

(3) 43.6

(4) 46.3    

(5) None of these

Directions (Q. 10-13): What should come in place of question.mark (?) in the following number series?

10. 13 14 30 93 376 1885 ?

(1) 10818    

(2) 10316

(3) 11316

(4) 11318    

(5) None of these

11. 4 6 9 13.5 20.25 30.375.?

(1) 40.25    

(2) 45.5625    

(3) 42.7525

(4) 48.5625    

(5) None ofthese

12. 400  240  144  86.4  51. 84  31.1 04 ?

(1) 19.2466    

(2) 17.2244    

(3) 16.8824

(4) 18.6624    

(5) None of these

13. 9 4.5 4.5 6.75 13.5 33.75 ?

(1) 101.25    

(2) 103.75    

(3) 99.75

(4) 105.50    

(5) None of these

14. The profit earned after selling an article for Rs 625 is the same as the loss incurred after seIling the article for Rs 435. What is the cost price ofthe article?

(1) Rs 530    

(2) Rs 520    

(3) Rs 540

(4) Rs 550    

(5) None of these

15. A sum of Rs 817 is divided among A, Band C such that 'A' receives 25% more than 'B' and 'B' receives 25% less than 'C'. What is A's share in the amount?

(1) Rs228

(2) Rs247

(3) Rs285

(4) Rs 304    

(5) None of these

16. Ms Sujata invests 7% ie Rs 2170, of her monthly salary in mutual funds. Later she invests 18% of her monthly salary in recurring deposits. Also, she invests 6% of her salary on NSC's. What is the total annual amount in- vested by Ms Sujata? .
(1) Rs 1,25,320

(2) Rs 1,13,520    

(3) Rs,I,35,120

(4) Rs 1,15,320    

(5) None of these

17. What is 30% of 40% of 2/5 2500?
(1) 500    

(2) 400    

(3) 360

(4) 120    

(5) None of these

18. A, B, C and D are four consecutive even numbers respectively and their average is 65. What is the product of A and D?

(1) 3968    

(2) 4216    

(3) 4092

(4) 4352    

(5) None of these

19. The sum offive numbers is 555. The average of the first two numbers is 75 and the third number is liS. What is the average of the last two numbers?

(1) 145    

(2) 290    

(3) 265

(4) 150    

(5) None of these

20. A car covers the first 35 km of its journey in 45 minutes and the remaining 69 km in 75 minutes. What is the average speed of the car?

(1) 42 kmlhr    

(2) 50 km/hr    

(3) 52 kmlhr

(4) 60 km/hr    

(5) None of these

21. In how many different ways can the letters of the word 'PRIDE' be arranged?
   
(1) 60    

(2) 120    

(3) 15

(4) 360    

(5) None of these

22. The ages of Samir and Tanuj are in the ratio of 8 : 15 years respectively. After 9 years the ratio of their ages will be II : 18. What is the difference in years between their ages? (1) 24 years

(2) 21 years.

(3) 20 years

(4)  33 years

(5)  None of these

Directions (Q. 23-27): What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?
23. 724.998+24.048+ 14.954=?    
(1) 8   
(2) 13   
(3) 2   
(4) 10   
(5) 16
24. (848.999+274.052)÷ 3.0054=?    
(1) 940   
(2) 836   
(3) 184   
(4)298   
(5)374
25.  3√184900 =?            
(1) 56   
(2) 44   
(3) 67   
(4) 33   
(5) 21
26. 18.5% of 425 + 16.2% of 388 =?    
(1) 141   
(2) 224   
(3) 116   
(4) 183   
(5) 215

27. 18.345 x 19.068 x ? = 11538.93375    
(1) 46    

(2) 61    

(3) 27    

(4) 33    

(5) 55


Directions (Q. 28-32): In the following number series only one number is wrong. Find out the wrong number. "

28. 529 841 961 1296 1681 1849 2209

(1) 1296        

(2) 841     

(3) 961

(4) 1681        

(5) None ofthese

29. 13   14  27  45  68  109   177
   
(1) 27        

(2) 109        

(3) 45

(4) 68        

(5) None of these

30. 14 22 34.5 55.5 87.25 13.875 209.125
   
(1) 55.5    

(2) 34.5    

(3) 135.875

(4) 87.25    

(5) None of these

31. 274 301 426 769 1498 2824 5026

(1) 301    

(2) 426    

(3) 79
   
(4) 2824    

(5) None of these

32. 4  28  160   990   6970   55832   502560

(1) 160    

(2) 990    

(3) 55832

(4) 6970    

(5) None of these

Directions (Q. 33-37): What s Would come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?

33. 8^9.4 x 4^12.8 x 64^8.1 =16?

(1) 41.8    

(2) 16.2    

(3) 18.4

(4) 25.6    

(5) None of these

34. 12% of 840 x 0.25% of 148 =?

(1) 37.296

(2) 101.17    

(3) 68.432

(4) 97.046.    

(5) None of these

35. A shopkeeper sells 200 metres of cloth for Rs 9,000 at a profit of Rs 5 per metre. What is the cost price of 1 metre of cloth?
(1) Rs45    

(2) Rs40    

(3) Rs35

(4) Rs30    

(5) None of these

36. the area of a circle is.1386 sq cm. What is the circumfer- ence of the circle?

(1) 142cm    

(2) 160cm    

(3) 130cm

(4) 132 cm    

(5) None of these

37. In a college a total number of 27 professors are appointed for all the faculties; viz Arts, Commerce and Science. If , equal number of professors are appointed for each of the faculties, how many professors are assigned to each faculty?

(1) 9    

(2) 12    

(3) 6

(4) 3    

(5) None of these     

38. Sridhar invests Rs 3,750 in shares, which is 25% of his monthly income. What is his monthly income?
(1) Rs 12,000    

(2) Rs 15,000    

(3) Rs 10,000

(4) Rs 16,000    

(5) None of these

39. Find the average of the following setof scores.

302, 152, 132, 122, 112
   
(1) 184        

(2) 165    

(3) 152

(4) 176        

(5) None of these

40. A bus covers a distance of 172 kms in 4 hours. What is the speed of the bus?
(1) 52km1hr    

(2) 47km1hr    

(3) 43km1hr

(4) 38 kmIhr    

(5) None of these

41. The total number of students in a school is 4800, out of which 60% are girls. What is the total number of boys in this school?

(1) 1920    

(2) 1934    

(3) 1980

(4) 1910    

(5) None of these

Directions (Q. 42-43): Each question below is followed by two statements A and B. You are to determine whether the data given in the statement is sufficient to answer the question. You should use the data and your knowledge of Mathematics to choose between the possible answers.

Give answer (1) if the statement A alone is sufficient to answer the question, but the statementit alone  not sufficient

Give answer 2) if the statement C alone is sufficien, to an we: the question, but the statement A alone is not sufficient.

Give answer 3) ifboth statements A and B together are needed to answer the question.

Give answer 4) if either the statementAalone or the statement B ,alone IS sufficient to-answer the question.

Give answer 5) if you cannot get the answer from the statements A and B together, but need even more data.

42. How many women can complete a piece of work in 15 days?

A . 12 women can complete the same piece of work in 20 days.

B. 10 men can complete rhe same piece of work in 12 days.
43. What is the rate of interest p.c.p.a. on an amount of Rs 12,000/- deposited in a bank?
A. The difference between the simple interest and the compound interest is Rs 172.80.
B. The simple interest for two years is Rs2,880.
Directions (Q. 44-48): What approximate value should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value.)
44. (4576+3286+5639)÷(712+415+212)=?

(1) 18    

(2) 22    

(3) 34

(4) 10    

(5) 46

45.  675.456+ 12.492 x 55.671 =?

(1) 971    

(2) 1071    

(3) 1171

(4) 1271

(5) 1371

46. (447.22) ²=?

(1) 200000    

(2) 210000    

(3) 220000
   
(4) 230000    

(5) 240000

47. 4374562 x 64 = ? x 7777
(1) 360    

(2) 3600    

(3) 36000

(4) 360000    

(5) 3600000

48. (872% of 659) ÷ 543 = ?

(1) 17    

(2) 11    

(3) 21
   
(4) 27    

(5) 31

Directions (Q. 49-53): What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series?

49. 5 9 18 34 59 95 ?

(1) 272    

(2) 168    

(3) 116

(4) 148    

(5) 144

50. 1200 480 192 76.8 30.72 12.288 ?

(1) 4.9152    

(2) 5.8192    

(3) 6.7112

(4) 7.6132    

(5) 8.5172

51. 963 927 855 747 603 423  ?

(1) 209

(2) 208    

(3) 207

(4) 206    

(5) 205

52. 841 .961 1089 1225 1369 1521. ?

(1) 1581            

(2) 1681        

(3) 1781

(4) 1881            

(5) 1981

53. 18  20  44  138  560  2810 ?

(1) 16818        

(2) 16836        

(3) 16854
   
(4) 16872         

(5) 16890

Directions (Q. 54-58): What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions? 

54. 74+.12x0.75-6 =?
   
(1) 72    

(2) 67    

(3) 62

(4) 77    

(5) None of these

55. 8888 + 848 + 88 - ? = 7337 + 737

(1) 1750    

(2) 1650    

(3) 1550

(4) 1450    

(5) None of these

56. 515.15-15.51-1.51-5.11-1.11=?

(1) 491.91

(2) 419.91    

(3) 499.19

(4) 411.19    

(5) None of these

57. (?) ² + (123) ² = (246)  ² - (99)  ² - 2462

(1) 184    

(2) 186     

(3) 182

(4) 180    

(5) None of these

58. 414 x? x7=127512

(1) 36    

(2) 40    

(3) 44

(4) 48    

(5) None of these

59. [(84) ² ÷28 x 12]÷24 =7 x ?

(1) 15    

(2) 17    

(3) 19

(4) 21    

(5) None of these
Directions (Q. 60-65): What approximate value should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value.
60. 561204 x 58 =? x 55555
(1) 606
(2) 646  
(3) 556
(4) 716 5)586
61. 459.008 + 3.0056 x 88.862 =?
(1) 738
(2) 725  
(3) 695
(4) 752
(5) 666
62. (444%of531)÷972 =? 
(1) 4.5
(2) 0.5  
(3) 2.5   
(4) 8.5 5)6.5
63. (9321 +5406+ 1001)÷(498+929+660)=?
(1) 13.5
(2) 4.5  
(3) 16.5
(4) 7.5
(5) 10.5
64. 9654 /21 +7638 / 44 =?
   
(1) 633    

(2) 600    

(3) 643

(4) 621    

(5) 598
65. (621.52)²=?
(1) 386300
(2) 379300
(3) 398300
(4) 365300
(5) 356300

Directions (Q. 66-70): What SilUUili come in place of question mark ('?) in the following number series ?
66. 444 467 513 582 674 789 ?
(1) 950  
(2) 904   
(3) 927
(4) 881  
(5) 973
67. 23 25 53 163 657 3291 ?
(1) 16461 
(2) 13169   
(3) 9877
(4) 23045  
(5) 19753
68. 3 13 65 585 7605 129285 ?
(1) 2456415  
(2) 2235675   
(3) 2980565
(4) 2711985  
(5) 2197g45
69. 1 16 81 256 625 1296 ?
(1) 4096  
(2) 2401   
(3) 1764
(4) 3136  
(5) 6561
70. 12 12 18 45 180 1170 ?
(1) 12285  
(2) 10530   
(3) 11700
(4) 12870  
(5) 7605

Directions (Q.71-80): What should come in place of question mark(?) in the following questions?
71 .4+4.44+0.4+44.04+444=?
(1) 497.24  
(2) 487.66   
(3) 496.88
(4) 469.88  
(5) None of these
72. [(130)²÷ 25 x 15] ÷ 30 =?
(1) 352  
(2) 314   
(3) 326
(4) 338  
(5) None of these
73. 38+16x0.8=?
(1) 43.2  
(2) 50.8   
(3) 44.8
(4) 1.9  
(5) None of these
74. (?)² +(65)² = (160)² -(90)² -7191
(1) 75  
(2) 77   
(3) 79
(4) 81  
(5) None of these
75. 398 x ? x 7 = 47362
(1) 15  
(2) 13   
(3) 17
(4) 19  
(5) None of these
76. 1485x?=594
(1) 2/5
(2) 3/4
(3) 3/5
(4) 5/6
(5) None of these
77. 2116+692-?=1111
(1) 1667   
(2) 1677   
(3) 1687
(4) 1697   
(5) None of these
78. 6.896 + 3.753 - 2.005 + 1.004 =?
(1) 9.486   
(2) 9.648   
(3) 9.864
(4) 9.846   
(5) None of these
79. (6.5% of 375)-(0.85% of 230)=?
(1) 23.42   
(2) 24.24   
(3) 21.64
(4) 25.76   
(5) None of these
80. (13)⁵⁴ x (13)^-51 =.?
(1) 2197     .   
(2) 39   
(3) 169
(4) 130      
(5) None of these
81. 93. 2/7 x 5/6 x 3/8 x ? = 790

(1) 8848

(2) 8246

(3) 8484

(4) 8868
(5) None of these
82. 968 x 445 ÷ ?=17230.4
(1) 60 

(2) 40 

(3) 25 

(4) 35 

(5) None of these

83. (0.05 x 6.25) ÷ 2.5 =?

(1) 0.105

(2) 0.95

(3) 0.115

(4) 1.25 5)

(5) None of these

84. (41) ² + (38) ²X (0.15) ² =?

(1) 3125.0225    

(2) 1713.49

(3) 3125.15

(4) 59204.0225    

(5) None of these
85. In an election between two candidates, one got 72% of the total valid votes. 25% of the total votes are invalid. If the total votes are 8200, what is the number of valid votes the other person got?

(1) 1835    

(2) 1722

(3) 2050
   
(4) 4428    

(5) None of these

86. In how many different ways can the letters of the word 'WEDDING' be arranged?

(1) 5040    

(2) 2500

(3) 2520

(4) 5000    

(5) Noneofthese

87. Milind takes as much time in running 15 metres as a car takes in covering 40 metres. What will be the distance covered by Milind during the time the car covers 2 km?
   
(1) 1000 metres    

(2) 600 metres    

(3) 650 metres

(4) 750 metres    

(5) None of these

88. Four milkmen rented a pasture. A grazed 15 cows for 4 months, B grazed lQ cows for 2 months, C grazed 18 cows for 6  months, and D grazed 16 cows for 5 months. If A's share of rent is Rs 1,020, whatis C's share of rent?

(1) Rs 1,836    

(2) Rs 1,360    

(3) Rs816

(4) Cannot be determined

 (5) None of these

Directions (Q. 89-92): Study the following data carefully and answer the questions given below. Out of 6500 students from the Arts wing of a college, 21 % of the total number of students have majored only in Psychology. 12% of the total number of students have majored only in English Literature, and 15% of the total number of students have majored only in Politics. 7% of the total number of students have majored only in Philosophy, and 10% of the total number of students have majored only in History. 8% of the total number of students have majored in both 'Psychology and Philosophy. 4% of the total number of students have majored in History as well as Politics, and 11 % of the total number of students have majored in English Literature as well as Politics. 9% of the total number of students have majored in Psychology and English Li .rature, and 3% of the total number of students have majored in History and Philosophy.

89.What is the ratio of the number of students majoring in Philosophy to the number of students majoring only in Psychology ?

(1) 4:5

(2) 5:6

(3) 6:7

(4) 7:8

(5) None of these

90. Students majoring in History are approximately what percent of the total number of students majoring in Politics?

(1) 48    

(2) 61    

(3) 52    

(4) 57    

(5) 45

91.How many students have majored only in Politics?

(1) 650

(2) 975    

(3) 780

(4) 455

(5) None of these

92. What is thetotal number of students majoring in English Literature?

(1) 780

(2) 1495

(3) 1300

(4) 2050

(5) None of these

93. Lowest number of students have majored in which subject?

(1) History    

(2) Philosophy    

(3) Politics

(4) English Literature     

(5) Psychology
94. 9654 /21 +7638 / 44 =?
  
(1) 633   

(2) 600     

(3) 643

(4) 621   

(5) 598

95. (4.36) 2 x 66.5 - 371 = ?

(1) 902     

(2) 893     

(3) 871

(4) 888     .

(5) 880

Directions (Q. 96-100): What approximate value should come in place ofthe question mark (?) in the following questions? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value.)
96. 3√7469 x√ 668 =?

(1) 300    

(2) 350    
                                              
(3) 505

(4) 425    

(5) 575

97. 2.5 x 0.08 ÷ (1.9)² =?

(1) 1.5    

(2) 0.8    

(3) 0.010

(4) 0.06    

(5) 2.1
Directions (Q. 98-99): Each qu stion below is followed by two statements A and B. You are to determine whether the data given in the statement is sufficient to answer the question. You should use the data and your knowledge of Mathematics to choose between the possible answers.
Give answer I) if the statement A alone is sufficient to answer the question, but the Statement A alone is not sufficient
Give answer 2) if the statement C alone is sufficien, to an we: the question, but the statement A alone is not sufficient.
Give answer 3) ifboth statements A and B together are needed to answer the question. Give answer 4) if either the statement Aalone or the statement B alone IS sufficient to-answer the question. Give answer 5) if you cannot get the answer from the statements A and 8 together, but need even more data.

98. How many women can complete a piece of work in 15 days?
A. 12 women can comnlete the same piece of work in 20 days.
B. 10 men can complete rhe same piece of work in 12 days.

99.  What is the rate of interest p.c.p.a. on an amount of Rs 12,000/- deposited in a bank? 
A. The difference between the simple interest and the compound interest is Rs 172.80.
B. The simple interest for two years is Rs2,880.
100. In how many different ways can the letters of the word 'WEDDING' be arranged?
(1) 5040   
(2) 2500
(3) 2520
(4) 5000   
(5) None

Answer
1.	(4)	26.	(2)	51.	(2)	76.	(1)
2.	(3)	27.	(5)	52.	(4)	77.	(4)
3.	(5)	28.	(2)	53.	(4)	78.	(2)
4.	(3)	29.	(1)	54.	(1)	79.	(2)
5.	(5)	30.	(4)	55.	(1)	80.	(5)
6.	(2)	31.	(1)	56.	(3)	81.	(1)
7.	(2)	32.	(3)	57.	(3)	82.	(3)
8.	(1)	33.	(5)	58.	(3)	83.	(5)
9.	(1)	34.	(4)	59.	(5)	84.	(2)
10.	(4)	35.	(4)	60.	(5)	85.	(4)
11.	(3)	36.	(4)	61.	(5)	86.	(5)
12.	(2)	37.	(1)	62.	(2)	87.	(1)
13.	(4)	38.	(2)	63.	(3)	88.	(3)
14.	(1)	39.	(4)	64.	(4)	89.	(4)
15.	(1)	40.	(4)	65.	(1)	90.	(2)
16.	(3)	41.	(5	66.	(3)	91.	(5)
17.	(4)	42.	(3)	67.	(5)	92.	(1)
18.	(4)	43.	(5)	68.	(4)	93.	(3)
19.	(2)	44.	(3)	69.	(2)	94.	(5)
20.	(1)	45.	(1)	70.	(1)	95.	(4)
21.	(3)	46.	(2)	71.	(3)	96.	(1)
22.	(3)	47.	(4)	72.	(4)	97.	(1)
23.	(4)	48.	(5)	73.	(2)	98.	(3)
24.	(3)	49.	(1)	74.	(5)	99.	(5)
25.	(5)	50.	(3)	75.	(1)	100.	(5)