VIJAYA BANK RECRUITMENT OF PROBATIONARY ASSISTANT MANAGER

Vijaya Bank, a nationalized Bank in India has given a recruitment notification for the recruitment Post of a 894 Probationary Assistant Manager vacancies in Junior Management Grade Scale – I. Candidates who have taken the Common Written Examination (CWE) for Probationary Officers/Management Trainees conducted by IBPS in 2011-2012 and obtained a valid IBPS CWE-PO/MT-2011 Score Card are only eligible to apply.  Eligible candidates may apply online from 16.05.2012 to 02.06.2012.

Jobs Title: Vijaya Bank Recruitment 2012

Jobs Position: Probationary Assistant Manager JMGS I

Scale/Grade: JMGS I

Total Posts: 894 Posts

Selection Process: Eligible candidates will be selected on the basis of TWS in IBPS CWE followed by Group Discussion and/or Personal Interview.

Age Limit:

1.    Candidates age must be between 20 years to 30 years.

2.    Cutoff date for determining age limit would be 01.07.2011. (Age relaxations will be extended as per Govt. rules).

Educational Qualification: Candidates must possess Graduate Degree in any discipline from a recognized university.

IBPS Score Card Minimum Weighted Score: Candidates must have the minimum TWSS in IBPS CWE. The minimum TWS score must be 138 for General candidates and 113 for SC/ST/OBC/PWD candidates.

Application Fee Details: Applicants need to pay application fee of Rs. 200/- (RS. 50/- for SC/ST/PWD candidates) in form of Challan downloaded from the website at any branch of Vijaya Bank s in Account No. 900900022503006 towards “VIJAYA BANK REC_PROJ 2012-13 Scale-I”.

Important Dates:
Starting Date for Online Registration: 16.05.2012
Last Date for Online Registration: 02.06.2012
Dates for Depositing Fee: from 16.05.2012 to 30.05.2012
Last Date for Reprint: 04.06.2012

How to Apply: Candidates need to apply for the post only through online mode from 16.05.2012 to 02.06.2012. After submission of online application candidates are asked to take the print of application form and retain it along with system generated Registration Number and Password for further use.

Instructions for Online Application:
1. Log on to www.vijayabank.com and select the ‘Recruitment’ link to open the ongoing recruitment drive notifications.
2. Select the link Recruitment Notification No. 01-2012 which will open the current notification.
3. Select the ‘Click Here to Download Payment Challan’ link to download and take print of Payment Challan.
4. Make payment at any Vijaya Bank branch and revisit the Bank’s website and this time select the ‘Click Here to Apply Online’.
5. Select ‘Apply Online’ link and fill all marked details carefully, check once to ascertain accuracy and click on ‘Submit’ button.
6. Take print of Application Form and retain it to be produces at the time of GD and/or Interview.

  CLICK HERE FOR DETAILED ADVERTISEMENT.

 

  CLICK HERE TO DOWNLOAD PAYMENT CHALLAN.

 

  CLICK HERE TO APPLY ONLINE.

Quantitative Aptitude for Bak Exams

Directions (Q. 1-9): What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions?

1. -84 x 29 + 365 = ?
   
(1) 2436    

(2) 2801    

(3) 2801
   
(4) 2071    

(5) None of these

2. (21.69)² - √324 =?
(1) 440.4615    

(2) 425.4561    

(3) 452.4561

(4) 442.4651    

(5) None ofthese

3. (800 ÷ 64) x (1296 ÷ 36) = ?

(1) 420    

(2) 460    

(3) 500

(4) 540    

(5) None of these

4. (42 x 229)÷(9261)^1⁄3 =?

(1) 452    

(2) 448    

(3) 458

(4) 456    

(5) None of these

5. (35423 +7104 +41720)-(317 x 89)=?

(1) 28213    

(2) 84307    

(3) 50694

(4) 54096    

(5) None of these

6. (9% of 386) x (6.5% of 144) = ?

(1) 340.1664    

(2) 325.1664    

(3) 333.3333
   
(4) 328.0065    

(5) None of these

7 . 4+4.44+44.4+4.04+444=?
(1) 500.88    

(2) 577.2    

(3) 495.22

(4) 472.88    

(5) None of these

8. 3√? = (36x24)÷9

(1) 884736    

(2) 804036    

(3) 854734

(4) 814736    

(5) None of these

9. (43% of 2750)- (38% of 2990) = ?

(1) 49.3    

(2) 44.7    

(3) 43.6

(4) 46.3    

(5) None of these

Directions (Q. 10-13): What should come in place of question.mark (?) in the following number series?

10. 13 14 30 93 376 1885 ?

(1) 10818    

(2) 10316

(3) 11316

(4) 11318    

(5) None of these

11. 4 6 9 13.5 20.25 30.375.?

(1) 40.25    

(2) 45.5625    

(3) 42.7525

(4) 48.5625    

(5) None ofthese

12. 400  240  144  86.4  51. 84  31.1 04 ?

(1) 19.2466    

(2) 17.2244    

(3) 16.8824

(4) 18.6624    

(5) None of these

13. 9 4.5 4.5 6.75 13.5 33.75 ?

(1) 101.25    

(2) 103.75    

(3) 99.75

(4) 105.50    

(5) None of these

14. The profit earned after selling an article for Rs 625 is the same as the loss incurred after seIling the article for Rs 435. What is the cost price ofthe article?

(1) Rs 530    

(2) Rs 520    

(3) Rs 540

(4) Rs 550    

(5) None of these

15. A sum of Rs 817 is divided among A, Band C such that 'A' receives 25% more than 'B' and 'B' receives 25% less than 'C'. What is A's share in the amount?

(1) Rs228

(2) Rs247

(3) Rs285

(4) Rs 304    

(5) None of these

16. Ms Sujata invests 7% ie Rs 2170, of her monthly salary in mutual funds. Later she invests 18% of her monthly salary in recurring deposits. Also, she invests 6% of her salary on NSC's. What is the total annual amount in- vested by Ms Sujata? .
(1) Rs 1,25,320

(2) Rs 1,13,520    

(3) Rs,I,35,120

(4) Rs 1,15,320    

(5) None of these

17. What is 30% of 40% of 2/5 2500?
(1) 500    

(2) 400    

(3) 360

(4) 120    

(5) None of these

18. A, B, C and D are four consecutive even numbers respectively and their average is 65. What is the product of A and D?

(1) 3968    

(2) 4216    

(3) 4092

(4) 4352    

(5) None of these

19. The sum offive numbers is 555. The average of the first two numbers is 75 and the third number is liS. What is the average of the last two numbers?

(1) 145    

(2) 290    

(3) 265

(4) 150    

(5) None of these

20. A car covers the first 35 km of its journey in 45 minutes and the remaining 69 km in 75 minutes. What is the average speed of the car?

(1) 42 kmlhr    

(2) 50 km/hr    

(3) 52 kmlhr

(4) 60 km/hr    

(5) None of these

21. In how many different ways can the letters of the word 'PRIDE' be arranged?
   
(1) 60    

(2) 120    

(3) 15

(4) 360    

(5) None of these

22. The ages of Samir and Tanuj are in the ratio of 8 : 15 years respectively. After 9 years the ratio of their ages will be II : 18. What is the difference in years between their ages? (1) 24 years

(2) 21 years.

(3) 20 years

(4)  33 years

(5)  None of these

Directions (Q. 23-27): What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?
23. 724.998+24.048+ 14.954=?    
(1) 8   
(2) 13   
(3) 2   
(4) 10   
(5) 16
24. (848.999+274.052)÷ 3.0054=?    
(1) 940   
(2) 836   
(3) 184   
(4)298   
(5)374
25.  3√184900 =?            
(1) 56   
(2) 44   
(3) 67   
(4) 33   
(5) 21
26. 18.5% of 425 + 16.2% of 388 =?    
(1) 141   
(2) 224   
(3) 116   
(4) 183   
(5) 215

27. 18.345 x 19.068 x ? = 11538.93375    
(1) 46    

(2) 61    

(3) 27    

(4) 33    

(5) 55


Directions (Q. 28-32): In the following number series only one number is wrong. Find out the wrong number. "

28. 529 841 961 1296 1681 1849 2209

(1) 1296        

(2) 841     

(3) 961

(4) 1681        

(5) None ofthese

29. 13   14  27  45  68  109   177
   
(1) 27        

(2) 109        

(3) 45

(4) 68        

(5) None of these

30. 14 22 34.5 55.5 87.25 13.875 209.125
   
(1) 55.5    

(2) 34.5    

(3) 135.875

(4) 87.25    

(5) None of these

31. 274 301 426 769 1498 2824 5026

(1) 301    

(2) 426    

(3) 79
   
(4) 2824    

(5) None of these

32. 4  28  160   990   6970   55832   502560

(1) 160    

(2) 990    

(3) 55832

(4) 6970    

(5) None of these

Directions (Q. 33-37): What s Would come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?

33. 8^9.4 x 4^12.8 x 64^8.1 =16?

(1) 41.8    

(2) 16.2    

(3) 18.4

(4) 25.6    

(5) None of these

34. 12% of 840 x 0.25% of 148 =?

(1) 37.296

(2) 101.17    

(3) 68.432

(4) 97.046.    

(5) None of these

35. A shopkeeper sells 200 metres of cloth for Rs 9,000 at a profit of Rs 5 per metre. What is the cost price of 1 metre of cloth?
(1) Rs45    

(2) Rs40    

(3) Rs35

(4) Rs30    

(5) None of these

36. the area of a circle is.1386 sq cm. What is the circumfer- ence of the circle?

(1) 142cm    

(2) 160cm    

(3) 130cm

(4) 132 cm    

(5) None of these

37. In a college a total number of 27 professors are appointed for all the faculties; viz Arts, Commerce and Science. If , equal number of professors are appointed for each of the faculties, how many professors are assigned to each faculty?

(1) 9    

(2) 12    

(3) 6

(4) 3    

(5) None of these     

38. Sridhar invests Rs 3,750 in shares, which is 25% of his monthly income. What is his monthly income?
(1) Rs 12,000    

(2) Rs 15,000    

(3) Rs 10,000

(4) Rs 16,000    

(5) None of these

39. Find the average of the following setof scores.

302, 152, 132, 122, 112
   
(1) 184        

(2) 165    

(3) 152

(4) 176        

(5) None of these

40. A bus covers a distance of 172 kms in 4 hours. What is the speed of the bus?
(1) 52km1hr    

(2) 47km1hr    

(3) 43km1hr

(4) 38 kmIhr    

(5) None of these

41. The total number of students in a school is 4800, out of which 60% are girls. What is the total number of boys in this school?

(1) 1920    

(2) 1934    

(3) 1980

(4) 1910    

(5) None of these

Directions (Q. 42-43): Each question below is followed by two statements A and B. You are to determine whether the data given in the statement is sufficient to answer the question. You should use the data and your knowledge of Mathematics to choose between the possible answers.

Give answer (1) if the statement A alone is sufficient to answer the question, but the statementit alone  not sufficient

Give answer 2) if the statement C alone is sufficien, to an we: the question, but the statement A alone is not sufficient.

Give answer 3) ifboth statements A and B together are needed to answer the question.

Give answer 4) if either the statementAalone or the statement B ,alone IS sufficient to-answer the question.

Give answer 5) if you cannot get the answer from the statements A and B together, but need even more data.

42. How many women can complete a piece of work in 15 days?

A . 12 women can complete the same piece of work in 20 days.

B. 10 men can complete rhe same piece of work in 12 days.
43. What is the rate of interest p.c.p.a. on an amount of Rs 12,000/- deposited in a bank?
A. The difference between the simple interest and the compound interest is Rs 172.80.
B. The simple interest for two years is Rs2,880.
Directions (Q. 44-48): What approximate value should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value.)
44. (4576+3286+5639)÷(712+415+212)=?

(1) 18    

(2) 22    

(3) 34

(4) 10    

(5) 46

45.  675.456+ 12.492 x 55.671 =?

(1) 971    

(2) 1071    

(3) 1171

(4) 1271

(5) 1371

46. (447.22) ²=?

(1) 200000    

(2) 210000    

(3) 220000
   
(4) 230000    

(5) 240000

47. 4374562 x 64 = ? x 7777
(1) 360    

(2) 3600    

(3) 36000

(4) 360000    

(5) 3600000

48. (872% of 659) ÷ 543 = ?

(1) 17    

(2) 11    

(3) 21
   
(4) 27    

(5) 31

Directions (Q. 49-53): What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series?

49. 5 9 18 34 59 95 ?

(1) 272    

(2) 168    

(3) 116

(4) 148    

(5) 144

50. 1200 480 192 76.8 30.72 12.288 ?

(1) 4.9152    

(2) 5.8192    

(3) 6.7112

(4) 7.6132    

(5) 8.5172

51. 963 927 855 747 603 423  ?

(1) 209

(2) 208    

(3) 207

(4) 206    

(5) 205

52. 841 .961 1089 1225 1369 1521. ?

(1) 1581            

(2) 1681        

(3) 1781

(4) 1881            

(5) 1981

53. 18  20  44  138  560  2810 ?

(1) 16818        

(2) 16836        

(3) 16854
   
(4) 16872         

(5) 16890

Directions (Q. 54-58): What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions? 

54. 74+.12x0.75-6 =?
   
(1) 72    

(2) 67    

(3) 62

(4) 77    

(5) None of these

55. 8888 + 848 + 88 - ? = 7337 + 737

(1) 1750    

(2) 1650    

(3) 1550

(4) 1450    

(5) None of these

56. 515.15-15.51-1.51-5.11-1.11=?

(1) 491.91

(2) 419.91    

(3) 499.19

(4) 411.19    

(5) None of these

57. (?) ² + (123) ² = (246)  ² - (99)  ² - 2462

(1) 184    

(2) 186     

(3) 182

(4) 180    

(5) None of these

58. 414 x? x7=127512

(1) 36    

(2) 40    

(3) 44

(4) 48    

(5) None of these

59. [(84) ² ÷28 x 12]÷24 =7 x ?

(1) 15    

(2) 17    

(3) 19

(4) 21    

(5) None of these
Directions (Q. 60-65): What approximate value should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value.
60. 561204 x 58 =? x 55555
(1) 606
(2) 646  
(3) 556
(4) 716 5)586
61. 459.008 + 3.0056 x 88.862 =?
(1) 738
(2) 725  
(3) 695
(4) 752
(5) 666
62. (444%of531)÷972 =? 
(1) 4.5
(2) 0.5  
(3) 2.5   
(4) 8.5 5)6.5
63. (9321 +5406+ 1001)÷(498+929+660)=?
(1) 13.5
(2) 4.5  
(3) 16.5
(4) 7.5
(5) 10.5
64. 9654 /21 +7638 / 44 =?
   
(1) 633    

(2) 600    

(3) 643

(4) 621    

(5) 598
65. (621.52)²=?
(1) 386300
(2) 379300
(3) 398300
(4) 365300
(5) 356300

Directions (Q. 66-70): What SilUUili come in place of question mark ('?) in the following number series ?
66. 444 467 513 582 674 789 ?
(1) 950  
(2) 904   
(3) 927
(4) 881  
(5) 973
67. 23 25 53 163 657 3291 ?
(1) 16461 
(2) 13169   
(3) 9877
(4) 23045  
(5) 19753
68. 3 13 65 585 7605 129285 ?
(1) 2456415  
(2) 2235675   
(3) 2980565
(4) 2711985  
(5) 2197g45
69. 1 16 81 256 625 1296 ?
(1) 4096  
(2) 2401   
(3) 1764
(4) 3136  
(5) 6561
70. 12 12 18 45 180 1170 ?
(1) 12285  
(2) 10530   
(3) 11700
(4) 12870  
(5) 7605

Directions (Q.71-80): What should come in place of question mark(?) in the following questions?
71 .4+4.44+0.4+44.04+444=?
(1) 497.24  
(2) 487.66   
(3) 496.88
(4) 469.88  
(5) None of these
72. [(130)²÷ 25 x 15] ÷ 30 =?
(1) 352  
(2) 314   
(3) 326
(4) 338  
(5) None of these
73. 38+16x0.8=?
(1) 43.2  
(2) 50.8   
(3) 44.8
(4) 1.9  
(5) None of these
74. (?)² +(65)² = (160)² -(90)² -7191
(1) 75  
(2) 77   
(3) 79
(4) 81  
(5) None of these
75. 398 x ? x 7 = 47362
(1) 15  
(2) 13   
(3) 17
(4) 19  
(5) None of these
76. 1485x?=594
(1) 2/5
(2) 3/4
(3) 3/5
(4) 5/6
(5) None of these
77. 2116+692-?=1111
(1) 1667   
(2) 1677   
(3) 1687
(4) 1697   
(5) None of these
78. 6.896 + 3.753 - 2.005 + 1.004 =?
(1) 9.486   
(2) 9.648   
(3) 9.864
(4) 9.846   
(5) None of these
79. (6.5% of 375)-(0.85% of 230)=?
(1) 23.42   
(2) 24.24   
(3) 21.64
(4) 25.76   
(5) None of these
80. (13)⁵⁴ x (13)^-51 =.?
(1) 2197     .   
(2) 39   
(3) 169
(4) 130      
(5) None of these
81. 93. 2/7 x 5/6 x 3/8 x ? = 790

(1) 8848

(2) 8246

(3) 8484

(4) 8868
(5) None of these
82. 968 x 445 ÷ ?=17230.4
(1) 60 

(2) 40 

(3) 25 

(4) 35 

(5) None of these

83. (0.05 x 6.25) ÷ 2.5 =?

(1) 0.105

(2) 0.95

(3) 0.115

(4) 1.25 5)

(5) None of these

84. (41) ² + (38) ²X (0.15) ² =?

(1) 3125.0225    

(2) 1713.49

(3) 3125.15

(4) 59204.0225    

(5) None of these
85. In an election between two candidates, one got 72% of the total valid votes. 25% of the total votes are invalid. If the total votes are 8200, what is the number of valid votes the other person got?

(1) 1835    

(2) 1722

(3) 2050
   
(4) 4428    

(5) None of these

86. In how many different ways can the letters of the word 'WEDDING' be arranged?

(1) 5040    

(2) 2500

(3) 2520

(4) 5000    

(5) Noneofthese

87. Milind takes as much time in running 15 metres as a car takes in covering 40 metres. What will be the distance covered by Milind during the time the car covers 2 km?
   
(1) 1000 metres    

(2) 600 metres    

(3) 650 metres

(4) 750 metres    

(5) None of these

88. Four milkmen rented a pasture. A grazed 15 cows for 4 months, B grazed lQ cows for 2 months, C grazed 18 cows for 6  months, and D grazed 16 cows for 5 months. If A's share of rent is Rs 1,020, whatis C's share of rent?

(1) Rs 1,836    

(2) Rs 1,360    

(3) Rs816

(4) Cannot be determined

 (5) None of these

Directions (Q. 89-92): Study the following data carefully and answer the questions given below. Out of 6500 students from the Arts wing of a college, 21 % of the total number of students have majored only in Psychology. 12% of the total number of students have majored only in English Literature, and 15% of the total number of students have majored only in Politics. 7% of the total number of students have majored only in Philosophy, and 10% of the total number of students have majored only in History. 8% of the total number of students have majored in both 'Psychology and Philosophy. 4% of the total number of students have majored in History as well as Politics, and 11 % of the total number of students have majored in English Literature as well as Politics. 9% of the total number of students have majored in Psychology and English Li .rature, and 3% of the total number of students have majored in History and Philosophy.

89.What is the ratio of the number of students majoring in Philosophy to the number of students majoring only in Psychology ?

(1) 4:5

(2) 5:6

(3) 6:7

(4) 7:8

(5) None of these

90. Students majoring in History are approximately what percent of the total number of students majoring in Politics?

(1) 48    

(2) 61    

(3) 52    

(4) 57    

(5) 45

91.How many students have majored only in Politics?

(1) 650

(2) 975    

(3) 780

(4) 455

(5) None of these

92. What is thetotal number of students majoring in English Literature?

(1) 780

(2) 1495

(3) 1300

(4) 2050

(5) None of these

93. Lowest number of students have majored in which subject?

(1) History    

(2) Philosophy    

(3) Politics

(4) English Literature     

(5) Psychology
94. 9654 /21 +7638 / 44 =?
  
(1) 633   

(2) 600     

(3) 643

(4) 621   

(5) 598

95. (4.36) 2 x 66.5 - 371 = ?

(1) 902     

(2) 893     

(3) 871

(4) 888     .

(5) 880

Directions (Q. 96-100): What approximate value should come in place ofthe question mark (?) in the following questions? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value.)
96. 3√7469 x√ 668 =?

(1) 300    

(2) 350    
                                              
(3) 505

(4) 425    

(5) 575

97. 2.5 x 0.08 ÷ (1.9)² =?

(1) 1.5    

(2) 0.8    

(3) 0.010

(4) 0.06    

(5) 2.1
Directions (Q. 98-99): Each qu stion below is followed by two statements A and B. You are to determine whether the data given in the statement is sufficient to answer the question. You should use the data and your knowledge of Mathematics to choose between the possible answers.
Give answer I) if the statement A alone is sufficient to answer the question, but the Statement A alone is not sufficient
Give answer 2) if the statement C alone is sufficien, to an we: the question, but the statement A alone is not sufficient.
Give answer 3) ifboth statements A and B together are needed to answer the question. Give answer 4) if either the statement Aalone or the statement B alone IS sufficient to-answer the question. Give answer 5) if you cannot get the answer from the statements A and 8 together, but need even more data.

98. How many women can complete a piece of work in 15 days?
A. 12 women can comnlete the same piece of work in 20 days.
B. 10 men can complete rhe same piece of work in 12 days.

99.  What is the rate of interest p.c.p.a. on an amount of Rs 12,000/- deposited in a bank? 
A. The difference between the simple interest and the compound interest is Rs 172.80.
B. The simple interest for two years is Rs2,880.
100. In how many different ways can the letters of the word 'WEDDING' be arranged?
(1) 5040   
(2) 2500
(3) 2520
(4) 5000   
(5) None

Answer
1.	(4)	26.	(2)	51.	(2)	76.	(1)
2.	(3)	27.	(5)	52.	(4)	77.	(4)
3.	(5)	28.	(2)	53.	(4)	78.	(2)
4.	(3)	29.	(1)	54.	(1)	79.	(2)
5.	(5)	30.	(4)	55.	(1)	80.	(5)
6.	(2)	31.	(1)	56.	(3)	81.	(1)
7.	(2)	32.	(3)	57.	(3)	82.	(3)
8.	(1)	33.	(5)	58.	(3)	83.	(5)
9.	(1)	34.	(4)	59.	(5)	84.	(2)
10.	(4)	35.	(4)	60.	(5)	85.	(4)
11.	(3)	36.	(4)	61.	(5)	86.	(5)
12.	(2)	37.	(1)	62.	(2)	87.	(1)
13.	(4)	38.	(2)	63.	(3)	88.	(3)
14.	(1)	39.	(4)	64.	(4)	89.	(4)
15.	(1)	40.	(4)	65.	(1)	90.	(2)
16.	(3)	41.	(5	66.	(3)	91.	(5)
17.	(4)	42.	(3)	67.	(5)	92.	(1)
18.	(4)	43.	(5)	68.	(4)	93.	(3)
19.	(2)	44.	(3)	69.	(2)	94.	(5)
20.	(1)	45.	(1)	70.	(1)	95.	(4)
21.	(3)	46.	(2)	71.	(3)	96.	(1)
22.	(3)	47.	(4)	72.	(4)	97.	(1)
23.	(4)	48.	(5)	73.	(2)	98.	(3)
24.	(3)	49.	(1)	74.	(5)	99.	(5)
25.	(5)	50.	(3)	75.	(1)	100.	(5)

RRB CENTRALISED NOTICE NO. 03/2012

Railway Recruitment Board (RRB) has issued notification against recruitment of 6,829 various vacancies. Eligible candidates may apply through prescribed application format on or before 11-06-2012. Other details like age limit, educational qualification, application fee details, selection process, how to apply and other details are given below.

RRB Vacancy Details:
Total Number of Posts: 6,829 

Names of Posts:
1. Commercial Apprentice – 317 vacancies
2. Traffic Apprentice – 740 vacancies
3. ECRC – 114 vacancies
4. Goods Guard – 1,768 vacancies
5. Jr Accounts Assistant cum Typist – 791 vacancies
6. Sr. Clerk cum Typist – 441 vacancies
7. Assistant Station Master – 2,646 vacancies
8. Traffic Assistant – 12 vacancies

Age Limit: Age should be in between 18-33 years and Cutoff date for determining age limit would be 01-07-2012. (Age relaxations will be extended as per rules).

Educational Qualification: Candidates are asked to refer to the notification for the details of required educational qualification provided separately for each post.

Application Fee Details: Unreserved and Male/OBC Male candidates need to pay Rs. 60/- in the form of Indian Postal Order or Demand Draft in favor of “Assistant Secretary or Secretary or Member Secretary or Chairman of Railway Recruitment Board payable at the place where the Railway Recruitment Board concerned is situated. SC/ST/PWD/EXSM/Women/Minorities/ Economically Backward Classes candidates are exempted from fee payment.

Selection Process: Candidates will be selected on the basis of their performance in Written Test followed by certificate verification.

How to Apply: Candidates apply through prescribed application format available in the notification, the application form should be filled up by the candidate in his/her own handwriting, with blue or black ball point pen only and send it along with copies of all required certificates and documents, by attaching a passport size photograph and attesting signature in an closed envelop super scribing  as ‘Application for the Post/s of ,Category No./,Centralized Employment Notice No. 03/2012 of RRB/—, Community (SC/ST/OBC/PWD/Ex-SM)’ to the address of concerned RRB, available in the notification on or before 11-06-2012.

Important Dates:
Last Date for Receipt of Application: 11-06-2012
Last Date for Receipt of Application by post: 26-06-2012
Date of Examination: 28-10-2012

For more details like vacancy distribution, pay scale, reservations and relaxations, instructions and conditions, and addresses, click on the link given below
Click here for detailed Advertisement

UCO Bank to recruit 1000 Clerks

Uco Bank invites application for recruitment to the post of Clerks from Indian citizens who have taken the Common Written Examination for Clerical cadre conducted by IBPS in 2011.
Name of the Post & Number of Vacancies in UCO Bank
Clerks: 1000 vacancies


Important Dates for recruitment in UCO Bank

• Opening date for online registration/ payment of application fee: 16 May 2012
• Closing date for online registration/ payment of application fee: 2 June 2012

Eligibility Criteria for recruitment in UCO Bank
Educational Qualification (as on 1 August 2011)

• Degree in any discipline from a recognized University or any equivalent qualification recognized as such by the Central Government. OR
• A pass with 50% marks in Higher Secondary Examination of 10+2 (10+2+3 pattern)/ 11th Std. (11+1+3 pattern) or Intermediate/ Pre-University (SC/ST/OBC/EXS & PWD candidates pass only) OR
• A pass with 60% marks in the aggregate in Matriculation/ SSC/ (old pattern)/ SSLC/ 10th Std. Examination (10+2+3 pattern) or equivalent.(SC/ ST/ OBC/ EXS & PWD candidates passed with 50% marks in aggregate)

Computer Knowledge/ Qualifications: Candidates should have a Certificate about working knowledge in Computer.
Proficiency in Official Language: Candidate should have proficiency in the Official  Language of the State for which he/ she has applied.
Essential Requirement

• IBPS Score obtained in CWE for Clerks 2011-12
• Candidates should have appeared in CWE from a centre in a State for the vacancies he/ she wishes to apply.

Age Limit (as on 1 August 2011): Minimum 18 years, Maximum 28 years
Pay Scale: Rs 7200-400/3-8400-500/3-9900-600/4-12300-700/7-17200-1300/1-18500-800/ 1-19300. DA, HRA, CCA, Graduation Pay, Medical, LFC, Terminal Benefits, other allowances etc. will be paid as per prevailing rules in the Bank depending upon place of posting.
Selection Procedure for recruitment in UCO Bank: Selection for the post of Clerk will be based on the Total Weighted Standard Score in the Common Written Examination conducted by IBPS in 2011 and marks scored in the Interview (75 marks).
Depending on the number of vacancies, the Bank reserves the right to call only those candidates who have sufficiently high IBPS score in Common Written Examination for Interview.
The minimum qualifying marks for the interview would be 40% for General Category and 35% for Reserved Category. Candidate should have proficiency in the Official language of the State for which he/ she has applied.
There may be some questions in the local language at the time of interview.
How to Apply for recruitment in UCO Bank: Candidates need to apply online on the bank's website http://recruitment.ucobank.com/job_offers.htm
Application Fee: Fee for SC/ ST/ PWD/ Ex- Servicemen category candidates is Rs 20 and fee for other category students is Rs 100.
The challan should be filled in BLOCK LETTERS. Application fee has to be paid through Fee Payment Challan at any of UCO Bank branches in cash. The fee needs to be paid in CBS Account Number and branch (as mentioned in Challan form) in the name & style of "UCO BANK CLERICAL CADRE RECRUITMENT PROJECT-2012".
Obtain the applicant's Copy of Counterfoil of the Application Fee Payment Challan duly receipted by the Bank with (a) Branch Name (b) Transaction ID/ Scroll Number (c) Date of Deposit & Amount filled by the Branch Official.
Apply online by re-visiting the Recruitment link appropriate places. Fill in all other required details therein and click on the "SUBMIT" button at the end of the Online Application form. Original counterfoil of the fee payment challan will have to be submitted with call letter at the time of interview or otherwise they will be disqualified.
The Application printout along with the fee payment receipt and required copies of documents should be kept ready for submission, if shortlisted for Interview.
For more information, please CLICK HERE

Punjab & Sind Bank Various Posts Recruitment

Applications are invited from eligible candidates for the following posts on contractual basis for close mentoring of RSETIs at our Lead districts Ludhiana, Faridkot and Moga

1. Faculty: 06posts Qualification: i) Shall be a Post Graduate viz. Masters in Social Work (MSW)/ M.A. in RURAL Development/ M.A. in Sociology / Psychology, B.Sc. (Ag.) / B.A. with B. Ed. Etc ii) Shall have flair for teaching with Computer Knowledge iii) Should be resident of same district or nearby district iv) Should be able to speak and write local/regional language 2. Office Assistant: 03posts Qualification: i) shall be a Graduate viz. Bachelor in Social Work (BSW) /B.A. / B. Com with Computer Knowledge. ii) Knowledge in Basic Accounts is a preferred qualification. iii) Should be resident of same district or nearby district. iv) Should be able to speak and write local/regional language 3. Attender / Watchman: 03posts Qualification: i) Shall be a Matriculate. ii) Should be ready to attend to all types of jobs at the office. iii) Should be resident of same district. iv) Should be able to speak and write local/ regional language How to apply: Candidates need to download application format from the website and fill it with all mandatory details, attach photograph, attest signature, super scribe the name of the post to be applied for on the envelope and send it along with copies of all relevant certificates, to the General Manager (PS), Punjab & Sind Bank, 6th Floor, 21, Bank House, Rajindra Place, New Delhi Last date: 15.05.2012 For more details Click here

VIZAG STEEL JUNIOR TRAINEES RECRUITMENT

BANKING AWARENESS PRACTICE QUESTIONS

1. Which of the following bodies tightened the norms for foreign exchange risk cover in India mentioning that only companies with a networth of Rs 200 crore can use derivatives to hedge against risk of volatility in currency rates?
a. IMF
b. Reserve Bank of India
c. SEBI
d. Union Ministry of Finance
Ans: b
2. Which body in India finally provided tax exemption on the 9.5 per cent interest income on PF deposits for 2010-11?
a. Reserve Bank of India
b. Income Tax Department
c. Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation
d. Corporate Affairs Ministry
Ans: b
3. (1) The report on Customer Service in Banks by a committee chaired by M. Damodaran, former Chairman of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) that was released on 3 July 2011 recommended an increased deposit insurance cover of Rs.5 lakh so as to encourage individuals to keep all their deposits in banks.
(2) The panel also suggested blocking of lost ATM cards through SMS and immediate restoration of funds in case of non-dispensation of cash at an ATM within 5 working days.
Which of the above is not true?
a. Only 1
b. Only 2
c. Both 1 & 2
d. None of the above
Ans: b
4. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in a bid to tame inflationary pressure hiked the short-term indicative policy rate (repo rate) by 50 basis points on 26 July 2011. The repo rate currently stands at what percentage?
a. 7%
b. 7.5%
c. 8%
d. 8.5%
Ans: c
5. Which bank posted a 99 per cent drop in net profit at Rs 21 crore for the fourth quarter ended 31 March 2011 against Rs 1867 crore during the corresponding period in 2010?
a. Indian Overseas Bank
b. State Bank of India
c. Bank of India
d. United Bank of India
Ans: b
6. Who did global payments processing company MasterCard appoint as the General Manager, South Asia and Country President, India?
a. T. V. Seshadri
b. Vicky Bindra
c. Tunde Lemo
d. Ajay Banga
Ans: a
7. Government of India on 19 July 2011 appointed Usha Ananthasubramanian, former general manager of Bank of Baroda (BoB) as executive director of which public sector lender?
a. Central Bank of India
b. Punjab National Bank
c. United Bank of India
d. Gramin Bank
Ans: b
8. Name the public sector lender that selected Metlife as its partner for a proposed foray into the life insurance segment.
a. Syndicate Bank
b. Punjab National Bank
c. Corporation Bank
d. United Bank of India
Ans: b
9. Which bank signed a memorandum of understanding with Dewan Housing Finance Corporation (DHFL) under which DHFL will distribute home loans to Yes Bank’s customers?
a. Canara Bank
b. ABN Amro bank
c. Yes Bank
d. HSBC
Ans: c
10. Which life insurance company in India launched a new non-linked health insurance plan, Jeevan Arogya?
a. HDFC Standard Life Insurance Co. Ltd
b. Life Insurance Corporation of India
c. IDBI Fortis Life Insurance Company Ltd.
d. SBI Life Insurance Co. Ltd
Ans: b
11. Which of the following public sector banks in November 2011 froze its lending to the power sector?
a. State Bank of India
b. Allahabad Bank
c. Punjab National Bank
d. United Bank of India
Ans: b
12. Which Indian bank on 10 May 2011 raised benchmark prime lending rate 75 basis points to 14% following raising of interest rates by RBI by basis points on 3 May 2011?
a. State Bank of India
b. Union Bank
c. Punjab National Bank
d. Bank of Baroda
Ans: a
13. The Reserve Bank of India on 26 April 2011 fined 19 banks, including the country’s top private and foreign banks for violating its guidelines on derivatives. Which is the only public sector bank on the list of banks to be fined?
a. State bank of India
b. Punjab National Bank
c. Bank of India
d. Indian Bank
Ans: a
14. The Reserve Bank of India on 25 August 2011 released its Annual Report for 2010-11. Which of the following was not discussed in the Annual Report the Central Board of the RBI?
a. assessment of the macroeconomic performance during 2010-11
b. prospects for 2011-12
c. working and operations of the Reserve Bank and its financial accounts
d. role of regulatory bodies in controlling the financial markets
Ans: d
15. Reserve Bank of India (RBI) panel headed by headed by Usha Thorat, Director, Centre for Advanced Financial Research and Learning (CAFRAL) on 29 August 2011 came up with suggestion on non-banking finance company (NBFC). Which of the following related to this statement is not true?
1. The panel suggested the central bank to insist on a minimum asset size of more than Rs.25 crore for registering any new non-banking finance company (NBFC)
2. Transfer of shareholding, direct or indirect, of 25 per cent and above, change in control, merger or acquisition of any registered NBFC will require prior approval of the Reserve Bank.
3. Tier-I capital for capital to risk weighted assets ratio (CRAR) purposes would be specified at 12 per cent to be achieved in three years for all registered deposit-taking and non-deposit-taking NBFCs.
4. NBFCs would be subject to regulations similar to banks while lending to stock brokers and merchant banks and similar to stock brokers, as specified by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
a. 1 & 4
b. 2 & 4
c. Only 4
d. Only 1
Ans: d
16. Which Indian PSU bank in tune with its plans to expand its retail division in the UK entered the mortgage market in the country for the first time?
a. Punjab National Bank
b. Oriental Bank of Commerce
c. State bank of India
d. Indian Overseas Bank
Ans: c
17. Which of the following banks set up two loan processing centres for the small and medium enterprise (SME) segment on a pilot basis in Bangalore & in New Delhi in September 2011?
a. Corp Bank
b. United Bank of India
c. Syndicate Bank
d. Bank of Baroda
Ans: c
18. The government suspended M Ramadoss for alleged violations in issuing insurance cover to an airline during his stint as head of another state-run insurer. To which insurance group did he belong to?
a. New India Assurance
b. LIC
c. GIC
d. ICICI Insurance
Ans: a
19. Which of the following banks in early May 2011 entered into a tie-up with non-banking finance companies such as Future Capital, Bajaj Finance, and Reliance Capital to grow its retail portfolio?
a. Central Bank of India
b. State Bank of India
c. Bank of India
d. HDFC Bank
Ans: a
20. Which are the two Gujarat-based cooperative sector lenders on which Reserve bank of India imposed a financial penalty of Rs 1 lakh each for violation of various rules, including anti-money laundering guidelines?
1. Shree MahalaxmiMercantile Co-operative Bank
2. Rander People’s Co-operative Bank
3. Abad District Co Op Bank
4. Ahd Mercantile Co-Op Bank Ltd
a. 1 & 2
b. 2 & 3
c. 1 & 4
d. 3 & 4
Ans: (a)

Bank of Baroda Clerk Exam Solved Paper 2011

Socio-economic, Banking and Computer Awareness

 
1. Which of the following nations is considered the originator of the concept of Micro Finance?
(1) Bangladesh
(2) India
(3) South Africa
(4) Greece
(5)Brazil

2. Which of the following is represented by the letter ‘L' in the abbreviation CAMELS, the rating system used in financial world ?
(1) Loans
(2) Leadership
(3) Liabilities
(4) Liquidity
(5) None of these

3. Repo rate is decided by which of the following organizations?
(1) SEBI
(2) AMFI
(3) All Banks
(4) RBI
(5) IMF

4. Many a times we read a term ‘PPP' in financial dailies/magazines. What is the full form of the same as used in financial world?
(1) Purchasing Power Parity
(2) Per captia Potential Purchases
(3) Public Per captia Power
(4) Present Purchasing Power
(5) Popular Public Preferences

5. The rate of interest on Term Deposits in Banks is stipulated by which of the following?
(1) RBI
(2) Government of India
(3) Indian Banks Association
(4) Banking Codes and Standards Board of India
(5) Individual Banks themselves

6.  Which of the following is not a function of a commercial bank?
(1) Providing project finance
(2) Selling Mutual Funds
(3) Deciding policy rates like CRR, Repo Rates/SLR etc.
(4) Settlement of payments on behalf of the customers
(5) Providing services such as locker facilities, remittances etc.

7. Which of the following carries out ‘Open Market Operations'?
(1) Stock Exchanges in India
(2) Indian Banks' Association
(3) Securities and Exchange Board of India
(4) Planning Commission
(5) Reserve Bank of India

8. The famous name Vikram Pandit is associated with which of the following organizations/banks?
(1) Cairn Energy
(2) ICICI Bank
(3) Pepsi Co.
(4) Vodafone
(5) Citigroup

9. Which of the following is the main function of I.M.E.?
(1) Finance investment loans to developing countries
(2) Act as a private sector lending arm of the World Bank
(3) Help to solve balance of payment problems of member countries
(4) Arrange international deposits from banks
(5) None of these

10. Which of the following is not a mode of foreign capital inflow to India?
(1) FDI
(2) FII
(3) NRI Accounts
(4) No Frills Accounts
(5) All these are valid for foreign capital inflow

11. Five Year Plans in India are finally approved by which of the following bodies?
(1) National Development Council
(2) President on the advice of Prime Minister
(3)  Union Cabinet
(4) Planning Commission
(5) Finance Minister

12. Which of the following schemes is launched specifically for helping Senior Citizens to avail loan by mortgage of their residential property?
(1) English Mortgage Scheme
(2)  Senior Capital Loan Scheme
(3) Reverse Mortgage Loan Scheme
(4) DEMAT Account Scheme
(5) None of these

13. The most appropriate measure of a country's economic growth is___
(1) Net National Product
(2) Net domestic product
(3) Gross domestic product
(4) Per capita real income
(5) Total Foreign Investment in a year

14. In order to streamline the functioning of MFI sector the RBI had appointed a committee. The committee was headed by___
(1) Dr. Y.V.Redddy
 (2) Shri M.V.Nair
(3) Shri Y.H.Malegam
(4) Dr. D.Subbarao
(5) Smt. Usha Thorat

15. The census in India is done after a gap of every-
(1) 5 years   
(2) 10 Years
(3) 12 Years
(4) 15 Years
(5) None of these

16. Structure of Basel II is based on how many pillars?
(1) Two         
(2) Three
(3) Four       
(4) Five
(5) Six

17. Which of the following is/are the depositories in India handling dematerialized shares?
(A) National Payment Corporation of India
(B) Central Depository Service (CDSL)
(C) Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE)
(1) Both (A) & (B)
(2) Only (B)
(3) Only (A)
(4) Only(C)
(5) All (A),(B) & (C)

18. What does the term NSDL stand for?
(1) National Securities Development Limited
(2) National Securities Depository Limited
(3) National Safety Development Limited
(4) Natural Safety Development Limited
(5) National Social & Developmental Liabilities

19. Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) does not have which of the following functions?
(1) Equipment leasing
(2) Housing finance and investments in financial securities
(3) Hiring & Purchasing Assets.
(4) Demand Deposits
(5) None of these

20. Insurance business in India is regulated by___
(1) Life Insurance Corporation of India
(2) SEBI
(3) Reserve Bank of India
(4) Insurance Regulatory & Development Authority (IRDA)
(5) AMFI

21. Basel III in banks is being planned to be implemented from which of the following years?
(1) 2012           
(2) 2013
(3) 2014           
(4) 2015
(5) 2019

22. Money Laundering refers to which of the following?
(1) Conversion of assets into cash
(2) Conversion of Money which is illegally obtained
(3) Conversion of cash into gold
(4) Conversion of gold into cash
(5) Conversion of shares into cash

23. As per the repots in various newspapers, RBI has asked banks to make a plan to provide banking service to all villages having a population of 2000. This directive issued by the RBI will fall in which of the following categories?
(1) Plan for Financial Inclusion
(2) Efforts to meet the targets of Priority Lending
(3) Extension of Relief Packages to the Farmers
(4) Extensions of Internal and Branchless Banking
(5) None of these

24. The price at which the Govt. Purchases food grain for maintaining the public distribution system is known as-
(1) Ceiling prices
(2) Procurement price
(3) Minimum Price
(4) Issue Price
(5) Distribution price

25. Which of these books is written by Kiran Desai?
(1) A Village By the Sea
(2) Darkness at Noon
(3) Lolita
(4) My Son's Father
(5) The Inheritance of Loss

Computer Awareness
26. The ___controls communications for the entire computer system.
(1) Arithmetic-logic unit
(2) Semiconductor
(3) Motherboard
(4) Coprocessor
(5) None of these

27. A ___is approximately 1 million bytes.
(1) Megabyte
(2) Kilobyte
(3) Gigabyte
(4) Terabyte
(5) None of these

28. Which of the following is formally defined as a criminal action perpetrated primarily through the use of a computer?
(1) Phishing
(2) Hacking
(3) Cybercrime
(4) Social networking
(5) None of these

29. Hardware used to translate words, sound images and actions that People understands into a form that the system unit can process is known as-
(1) Device drivers
(2) Device readers
(3) Input devices
(4) Output devices
(5) None of these

30. Being- means being familiar enough with computers in such a manner that you understand their capabilities and limitations.
(1) Computer literate
(2) Computer competent
(3) Computer savvy
(4) Technology literate
(5) None of these

31. The System component that controls and manipulates data in order to produce information is called the -
(1) Keyboard
(2) Microprocessor
(3) Monitor
(4) Mouse
(5) None of these

32. The container that houses most of the electronic components that make up a computer system is known as the -
(1) Arithmetic -logic unit
(2) Central processing unit
(3) RFID
(4) System catalog
(5) None of these

33. How a network is arranged and how it shares information and resources is called a network___
(1) Topology
(2) Strategy
(3) Protocol
(4) Architecture
(5) None of these

34. These chips are specifically designed to handle the processing requirements related to displaying and manipulating 3-D images.
(1) Graphics coprocessors
(2) Arithmetic - logic unit processors
(3) Control unit processors
(4) CISC chips
(5) None of these

35. Which type of software is used to make a slide show ?
(1) Spreadsheets software
(2) World processing software
(3) Presentation software
(4) System software
(5) None of these

36. RAM is referred to as- storage.
(1) Direct  
(2) Volatile
(3) Secondary
(4) Sequential
(5) None of these

37. The - tells the rest of the computer how to carry out a program's instruction.
(1) ALU
(2) Control unit
(3) System unit
(4) Motherboard
(5) None of these

38.  The combination of operating system and processor in a computer is referred to as computers'___
(1) Firmware
(2) Specification
(3) Minimum requirements
(4) Platinum
(5) None of these

39. The position of a disk that contains no stored data, but may contain latent data is called-
(1) RAM slack
(2) A cluster
(3) Swap space
(4) Unallocated space
(5) None of these

40. What is keyboard used for?
(1) Input text and numbers and send commands to the computer
(2) To create new keys to use with your computer
(3) To open the computer up
(4) To create pictures and images and send them to your computer
(5) None of these

41. The information processing cycle includes the following processes -
(1) Input, processing, output, storage
(2) Input, output, manipulation, arithmetic
(3) Data, processing, printing, editing
(4) Storage, display, data, information
(5) None of these

42. How tightly the bits can be packed next to one another on a disk is referred to as-
(1) Tracks                  
(2) Sectors
(3) Density                
(4) Configuration
(5) None of these

143. What are the speakers attached to your computer used for?
(1) Displaying images
(2) Sending messages
(3) Storing messages
(4) Handling sound and music
(5) Make system look technical

44. Tape is described as using this type of access-
(1) magneto-optical
(2) DVD
(3) Direct
(4) Disastrous
(5) None of these

45. Many experts are predicting that this revolution is expected to dramatically affect the way we communicate and use memory___
(1) Graphics
(2) Input
(3) Computer technology
(4) Industry
(5) Wireless

46. The acronym DBMS stands for what?
(1) Double-blind management setup
(2) Document binder management system
(3) Data binding and marketing structure
(4) Database methodology system
(5) None of these

47. The Name of the location of a particular piece of data is its___
(1) Address
(2) Memory name
(3) Storage site
(4) Data location
(5) None of these

48. The arithmetic/logic unit performs the following actions___
(1) Checks data for accuracy
(2) Does calculations using addition, subtraction, multiplication, and division
(3) Does logical comparisons, such as equal to, greater than, less than
(4) Does both calculations and logical comparisons
(5) None of these

49.The most powerful type of computer is___
(1) Mainframe computers
(2) Microcomputers
(3) Minicomputers
(4) Synocomputers
(5) Supercomputers

50. Letters, memos, term papers, reports and contracts are all examples of ___
(1)  Models
(2) Spreadsheets
(3) Documents
(4) menus
(5) None of these

Answers

1. (1)
2. (4)
3. (4)
4. (1)
5. (5)
6. (3)
7. (3)
8. (5)
9. (3)
10. (4)
11. (1)
12. (3)
13. (3)
14. (3)
15. (2)
16. (2)
17. (2)
18. (2)
19. (4)
20. (4)
21. (5)
22. (2)
23. (1)
24. (2)
25. (5)
26. (3)
27. (1)
28. (3)
29. (3)
30. (1)
31. (2)
32. (5)
33. (4)
34. (1)
35. (3)
36. (2)
37. (2)
38. (5)
39. (3)
40. (1)
41. (1)
42. (3)
43. (4)
44. (3)
45. (5)
46. (5)
47. (4)
48. (4)
49. (5)
50. (3)

BANKING AWARENESS PRACTICE QUESTIONS

1. First Governor of RBI was – 
a) Hilton Young
b) Paul Samuelson
c) C.D.Deskmukh
d) O.A Smith
Ans. d) O.A Smith

2. At the time of nationalization who was the Governor of RBI-
a) O.A Smith
b) J.B Taylor
c) C.D. Deshmukh
d) K.C.Neogy
Ans. c) C.D. Deshmukh 

3. The RBI was nationalized in the year –
a)1949
b)1956
c)1959
d)1947
Ans. a)1949 

4. The general superintendence and director of the bank is entrusted to central board of directors of –
a)10 members
b) 20 members
c) 25 members
d)30 members
Ans. b) 20 members 

5. Paper currencies of our country are issued by RBI under –
a) Section- 22 of the RBI act -1934
b) Section- 24 of the RBI act -1934
c) Section- 28 of the RBI act -1934
d) None of these
Ans. a) Section- 22 of the RBI act -1934 

6. One rupee currency notes bear the signature of - 
a) PM
b) President of India
c) Governor of RBI
d) Finance Secretary of India
Ans. d) Finance Secretary of India

7. Ten rupees notes bear the signature of –
a) President
b) Finance Minister
c) Secretary of Ministry of finance
d) Governor of RBI
Ans. d) Governor of RBI

8. Which of the following is the banker of the banks –
a) IDBI
b) SBI
c) RBI
d)UTI
Ans. c) RBI 

9. In which of the following banks one can’t open a personal account –
a) Co-Operative Banks
b) Commercial banks
c) Regional Rural Banks
d) RBI
Ans. d) RBI

10. Which of the following banks is the banker to the government –
a) SBI
b) SEBI
c) RBI
d) IRDA
Ans. c) RBI 

11. Which of the followings are the function of RBI –
a) Regulation of currency and flowing of credit system
b) Maintaining exchange values of rupee
c) Formulating monetary policy of India
d) All of these
Ans. d) All of these

12. Credit rationing in India is done by –
a) SBI
b) LIC
c) UTI
d) RBI
Ans. d) RBI

13. The first bank of India was –
a) Bank of Hindusthan
b) Imperial Bank
c) Bank of Bengal
d) Oudh Commercial Bank
Ans. a) Bank of Hindusthan 

14. The first Indian fully liability and managed bank was –
a) PNB
b) Traders Bank
c) SBI
d) 0 Presidency Bank of India
Ans. a) PNB 

15. The rates at which the RBI extends credit to the commercial bank is called –
a) Bank Rate
b) Reverse Repo Rate
c)Interest Rate
d) None of these
Ans. a) Bank Rate 

16. In which of the following is not the any element of monetary policy of  RBI –
a) Bank rate
b) Open Market Operation
c) Public Expenditure
d) All of these
Ans. c) Public Expenditure 

17. 100 rupees note bears the signature of –
a) Governor of RBI
b) PM
c) Finance Secretary of India
d) Chairman of Finance Commission
Ans. a) Governor of RBI 

18. Which of the following is the last lender of the last resort of commercial bank-
a) SBI
b) Union Govt.
c) RBI
d) UTI
Ans. c) RBI 

19. The RBI is agent of central government and of all state government except –
a) Bihar
b) Goa
c) Jammu and Kashmir
d) Mizoram
Ans. c) Jammu and Kashmir 

20. Controller of credit of commercial banks in our country is –
a) RBI
b)SEBI
c) ICI
d)UTI
Ans. a) RBI 

21. The Banking Concept in India was first developed by –
a) British
b) French
c) Indian
d) None of these
Ans. a) British 

22. The rate at which RBI gives short term credit to the commercial banks against government securities with buy back provision is called –
a) Bank Rate
b) Repo Rate
c) Reverse repo rate
d) Interest rate
Ans. b) Repo Rate

23. The rate at which RBI takes loans from commercial banks is called –
a)  Repo Rate
b) Reverse Repo Rate
c) Bank Rate
d) Interest Rate
Ans. b) Reverse Repo Rate 

24. At present the Reverse Repo Rate of RBI is (As of 25th Nov) –
a) 8.25
b) 7.25
c) 7.50
d)8.50
Ans. d)8.50

25. Bank rate of RBI is also known as –
a) Interest Rate
b) Discount Rate
c) fed rate
d) bid rate
Ans. b) Discount Rate

26. Which of the following is not the any element of quantitative credit control policy of RBI –
a) CRR
b) SLR
c) Selective credit control
d) open market operation.
Ans. c) Selective credit control

27. At present CRR of RBI is –
a) 6%
b) 7.5%
c) 8.5%
d) none of these
Ans. a) 6%

28. The limitation of CRR of RBI is –
a)3-10 %
b) 3-15%
c) 15-38%
d) 10-25%
Ans. b) 3-15%

29. The apex organization of Indian money market is –
a)SBI
b) SEBI
c) RBI
d) IRDA
Ans. c) RBI

30. If the cash reserve is lowered by RBI, what will be its effect on credit creation –
a) Decrease
b) Increase
c) No Change
d) None of these
Ans. b) Increase

31. The expansion of money supply of an economy depends on –
a) The policy of CRR
b) The bank rate policy
c) Open market operation
d) All of these
Ans. d) All of these

32. Among the following who are eligible to benefit from the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act? –
a) Adult Members of only the scheduled caste and scheduled tribe holders
b) Adult of below poverty line household
c) Adult members of household of all backward community
d) adult members of any rural household
e) None of these
Ans. d) adult members of any rural household 

33. Which of the following banks merged with Punjab national banks in 1993 –
a) New bank of India
b) Central Bank of India
c) Imperial Bank of India
d) Common bank of India
Ans. a) New bank of India

34. A currency, the exchange values of which is expected to remain stable due to strong performance by it’s economy. This currency is –
a) Soft Currency
b) Hot currency
c) Fiat currency
d) None of these (Hard Currency)
Ans. d) None of these (Hard Currency)

35. The Reserve Bank of India issues under the following note issue method? –
a) Proportional Reserve System
b) Minimum Reserve System
c) Maximum Reserve System
d) Fixed Fiduciary System
Ans. b) Minimum Reserve System

36. What is a Scheduled Bank? –
a) A bank having Rs 10 Crore deposits
b) A bank having Rs 100 Crore deposits
c) A bank having Rs 5 Crore deposits
d) A bank included in the second schedule of RBI act 1934.
Ans. d) A bank included in the second schedule of RBI act 1934.

37. How many languages are used on a Ten Rupee note? –
a) 2
b) 7
c) 10
d) 15
e) 16
Ans. d) 15

38. The place where bankers meet and settle their mutual claims and accounts is known as –
a) Treasury
b) Clearing House
c) Dumping House
d) Collection centre
Ans. b) Clearing House

39. The largest Public sector bank in India –
a) SBI
b) PNB
c) RBI
d) ICICI
Ans. a) SBI

40. Which of the following is not the function of RBI –
a) Banker’s bank
b) Banker to public
c) custodian of foreign exchange
d) Bankers to Govt.
Ans. b) Banker to public

41. Who is responsible for the collection and publication of monetary and financial information-  
a) Finance Commission
b) Finance ministry
c) RBI
d) Auditor and Comptroller general of India
Ans. c) RBI

42. Which of the following regulatory authority  to oversee the new issues, protect the investment and investors, promote the development of Capital Market and regulate the working of Stock Exchange –
a) UTI b) IRDA
c) RBI
d) SEBI
e) None of these
Ans. d) SEBI

43. After a long span of 22 years, RBI released Rs.1000/- currency note for circulation in –
a) 2000
b) 2002
c) 2005
d) 2008
Ans. a) 2000

44. Regional Rural banks are working in all states of the country except –
a) Sikkim and Goa
b) Sikkim and Manipur
c) Manipur and Nagaland
d) Jammu and Kashmir
Ans. a) Sikkim and Goa

45. The National Housing Bank  is a subsidiary of –
a) RBI
b) NABARD
c) IDBI
d) UTI
Ans. a) RBI

46. At present the ceiling of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in insurance sector in India is –
a) 26%
b) 49%
c) 51%
d) 74%
Ans. a) 26%

47. Rs. 25 Paisa was ceased by the Govt of India on –
a) 30th june 2011
b) 30th July 2011
c) 1st January 2011
d) 1st July 2011
Ans. a) 30th june 2011

48. Initial Public Offering (IPO) is associated with –
a) RBI
b) Stock Exchange
c) IRDA
d) Indian Postal Service
Ans. b) Stock Exchange

49. The Basic regulatory authority for mutual funds and stock markets lies with the –
a) Government of India
b) Reserve Bank of India
c) Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
d) Stock Exchange
Ans. c) Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)

50. Monetary policy Referes to the policy of –
a) Money Lenders
b) Government
c) Commercial Banks
d) RBI
Ans. d) RBI

Bank of Baroda Recruitment of Specialist Officers

Bank of Baroda (BOB)
Baroda Corporate Centre, Plot No. C-26, Block G, Bandra Kurla Complex,
Bandra (East), Mumbai - 400051

Bank of Baroda - Recruitment of Specialist Officer

Bank of Baroda (BoB), India's International Bank, looking for eligible candidates for following posts of Specialist Officers :

• Specialist Officers : 125 posts (UR- 63, OBC- 34, SC-19, ST-9) (PH-3) in MMG II Scale Rs. 19400 - 28100, Discipline : Security-15, Treasury/Forex-15, HR-40, Risk Management-10, Credit-25, Technical-20, Age : 21-37 years as on 01/05/2012., Experience : Minimum 3 years in relevant field.

How to Apply : Eligible candidates are advised to apply 'ONLINE' only at Bank of Baroda website from 01/05/2012 to 15/05/2012.

Please visit http://www.bankofbaroda.com/recruitment.asp  for detailed information, payment voucher and a link to Apply Online from 01/05/2012 onwards.