SSC Scientific Assistants Recruitment

SSC Scientific Assistant Recruitment 2011  Staff Selection Commission invites online applications (http://www.ssconline.nic.in) from eligible candidates for recruitment to 465 vacant posts of Scientific Assistants in The Indian Meteorological Department.
Important Dates :

• Commencement of Part-I Registration Online : 01-10-2011
• Last Date for Part-I Registration Online : 26-10-2011
• Last Date for Part-II Registration Online : 28.10.2011 upto 5 P.M
• Date of Exam: 18.12.2011

Fee : Rs. 100/- (No Fees for SC/ST/PH/Women) Payable through Challan Generated after Part-I Registration or Online Net Banking of SBI.
Pay Scale : Pay Band-2 (Rs.9300-34800) plus Grade Pay Rs. 4200
Total No. of Vacancies : 465 (UR-230, OBC-128, SC-70, ST-37) & Horizontal reservation for OH-10 & HH-10).
Age Limit (as on 28.10.2011) : Not more than 30 years.
Selection Procedure : Written Exam – Personal Interview
Education Qualification : Bachelor’s Degree in Science (with Physics as one of the subject) / Computer Science / Information Technology / Computer Applications or Diploma in Electronics and Telecommunication Engineering from a recognized Institution / University or equivalent.
More Details & Online Applications  :

• http://www.ssconline.nic.in 
• Recruitment of Scientific Assistants for Meteorological Department Detailed Notification
• APPLICATION FORM

18th Know India Programme

The participants of 18th Know India Programme (KIP) called on the Minister of Overseas Indian Affairs, Shri. Vayalar Ravi here today. Welcoming the participants, the Minister said that the purpose of organizing KIP is to provide a unique forum for students and young professionals of Indian origin to visit India, share their views and to bond closely with contemporary India. He also highlighted the role of the Ministry in linking ‘Youth Diaspora’ with their origin country.

The 18th Know India Programme is being held from 21st September 2011 to 11th October 2011. 28 participants are in the age group of 18-26 yrs from six countries (Australia, Fiji, South Africa, Suriname, Trinidad and Tobago and Malaysia). The first leg of the program in Delhi has started. The Rajasthan Government is the partner state of the 18th KIP. During the second leg of the programme, the participants will visit different parts of Rajasthan.

The content of the programme broadly includes the following:

(a) Presentations on the country, the constitution, political process etc.
(b) Interaction with faculty and students at a prestigious University/College/Institute
. (c) Presentation on the industrial development and visit to some Industries
(d) Visit to a village to better understand the typical village life
(e) Exposure to Indian media and Film Industry.
(f) Interaction with NGOs and organizations dealing with women affairs.
(g) Visit to places of historical importance/Monuments.
(h) Taking part in Cultural programmes
(i) Exposure to yoga
(j) Call on dignitaries.

India Post Ties-up with MoneyGram International for Money Transfer Solutions

India Post, the largest distribution postal network in the world, and the MoneyGram International, the fastest growing global money transfer company joined hands today to offer convenient money transfer solutions to Indians. Shri Kapil Sibal, the Union Minister of Communications and Information Technology commenced the scheme by conducting a remittance transaction through the MoneyGram service and displayed the ease in the transaction through the new system. The transaction was made from UAE to Delhi.

Speaking on the occasion, Shri Sibal said that more than fifty percent Indians do not have bank accounts and international inward remittances to rural areas to support financial inclusion initiatives of the Government of India. Transacting money without a bank account will make a difference in the lives of the citizens.

Starting today, 100 important Post Offices in Delhi, Punjab and Tamil Nadu Circles will begin offering MoneyGram instant inward money transfer services. MoneyGram’s services will be extended to other Post Offices and Circles in the country in a phased manner. The service is expected to be available in 5,000 Post Offices in the country by 2014. India Post and MoneyGram have planned a joint marketing endeavor in a number of states.

Earlier Shri Sachin Pilot, Ministers of State for Communications and IT said that 30 million Indians are living abroad and this number is growing. Money remittance services have huge market potential as banks have only five percent rural presence in the country. This partnership with MoneyGram will provide valuable service to those customers, particularly in rural areas, who are not fully served by banks and other financial institutions, he added.

Ms. Radhika Doraiswamy, Secretary, Department of Posts said, “India Post has long been in international money transfer service through its traditional paper-based Money Order service to many countries The social relevance of India Post has gained momentum in the recent past through active participation of Post Offices in disbursement of wages to the rural poor under the Mahatma Gandhi National Employment Guarantee (MNEGR) Scheme throughout the country. We work tirelessly to extend access not only to mail services, but to financial services for all, and it is in this context that our association with MoneyGram, a leading global money transfer company, is significant. This tie-up will help India Post to provide valuable service to our customers in a fast, convenient and cost-effective manner.”

Smt. Manjula Prasher, Member (Operations & Technology) Postal Services Board said “all departmental post offices numbering around 25,000, which are already computerized, are expected to be covered under Core Banking Solution (CBS) by 2012-13. Plans are afoot to provide Rural ICT to all 1.3 lakh branch post offices in the country. India Post is undertaking diversified activities by leveraging its network to augment revenues. Our Post Offices have more than 10 years of experience in providing instant international money transfer service. This valuable experience will be of great help to make the association with MoneyGram a successful and long-lasting one.

Harsh Lambah, MoneyGram’ Senior Regional Director for South Asia said, “MoneyGram’s teaming with India Post reaffirms the company’s commitment to serving its hundreds of thousands of customers in the world’s largest remittance receive market and the value MoneyGram brings India Post’s business and customers. Bringing India Post, one of the world’s largest postal services to our network is very exciting.

MoneyGram International is a leading global money transfer company offering money transfer services worldwide through a global network of more than 244,000 agent locations—including retailers, international post offices and financial institutions—in 192 countries and territories around the world.

China's space module launch

A spokesperson for China's manned space programme said on September28 that fuel had been injected into the Long March-2FT1 carrier rocket in preparation for launching the Tiangong-1 space module on September 29 as planned.

The Long March-2FT1 is the latest modified model of the Long March-2 rocket series and features a more powerful thrust force, said spokeswoman Wu Ping at a press conference at the Jiuquan Satellite Launch Center in northwest China.

The Long March-2FT1, given more than 170 improvements, is 52-metre long with a payload to low Earth orbit of 8.6 tonnes,said Mr. Wu.

The modifications came after an unsuccessful launch in August when a Long March-2C rocket failed to send an experimental satellite into orbit. Engineers conducted comprehensive technical evaluations and made modifications to Tiangong-1's Long March-2F carrier rocket, which shares most of its components with the failed Long March-2C.

To contain the Tiangong-1 module, which is larger than China's Shenzhou manned spacecraft, the Long March-2FT1 has a larger nose fairing, according to Jing Muchun, chief designer of the Tiangong mission's carrier rocket system.

The shape of the rocket's boosters has also been modified to allow for greater fuel volume than the Long March-2F model, resulting in an increase in its thrust power, said the chief designer.

Compared with carrier rockets that the United States and Russia have used to launch Moon-landing vehicles and space station components, China's Long March rocket series is much less powerful.

For example, a carrier rocket must have a payload capacity of at least 20 tonnes to send one single part of the International Space Station into low Earth orbit. “China's manned space programme aims at building up a space station, so we need a more powerful carrier rocket,” Jing told Xinhua at the launch center.

“Research and development on a new, bigger carrier rocket that burns more environmentally-friendly liquid-oxygen-kerosene fuels is in progress,” he said.

Australian scientists develop 'needle-free' vaccination

Australian scientists have developed a cheap and painless ’needle-free’ vaccination device that can be self-administered.

A team of 20 researchers led by Professor Mark Kendall, from the Australian Institute for Bioengineering and Nanotechnology at The University of Queensland, have developed the Nanopatch, a stamp-sized vaccine delivery device that could make vaccination programmes globally simpler and cheaper.

The Nanopatch, having 20,000 micro projections per square centimetre, is designed to directly place vaccine into the human skin, which is rich in immune cells.

And unlike the needle and syringe, which places vaccine into the muscle - which has very few immune cells - the Nanopatch puts it to our immune sweet spot.

“And by doing that we make vaccines work a lot better,” Kendall told PTI.

“The Nanopatch potential lies in it being cheap, painless, very effective being transported without refrigeration - and can be given without the need for extensive training,” Kendall said.

The removal of the need for refrigeration is achieved by dry-coating vaccine to the Nanopatch, which could have huge potential for developing countries like India, and many within Africa, he said.

The World Health Organisation estimates 50 per cent of vaccines in Africa do not work properly because the ’cold chain’ has been broken.

In a pandemic, the reduced dose would also make it easier for governments to supply sufficient vaccine to the public, he added.

The new device is simple as it does not need a trained practitioner to administer the vaccine.

The Nanopatch has to be worn to just 2 minutes or even less, thus giving a pain-free immunisation, he said.

The vaccine could hit markets in next 10 years, Kendall said.

The Nanopatch, described as a “vaccine utopia” was recently won Prof Kendall and his team the 2011 Eureka Prize for Excellence in Research by an Interdisciplinary Team.

The prize is part of the Australian Museum Eureka Prizes.

UGC National Eligibility Test 2011 (December)

The National Educational Testing Bureau of University Grants Commission (UGC) conducts National Eligibility Test (NET) for Indian nationals in order to ensure minimum standards for the entrants in the teaching profession and research. It determines the candidate's eligibility for lectureship and for award of Junior Research Fellowship (JRF).
The tests are conducted twice in a year generally in the months of June and December. For candidates who desire to pursue research, the Junior Research Fellowship (JRF) is available for five years subject to fulfilment of certain conditions. The JRFs are awarded to the meritorious candidates from among the candidates qualifying for eligibility for lectureship in the NET. JRFs are available only to the candidates who opt for it in their application forms.
Name of the post

• Lecturership NET: for appointment as Lecturers
• JRF (Junior Research Fellowship) NET: to receive fellowship from UGC

Age Limit

• Lecturership NET: Minimum 19 years, no upper age limit
• JRF (Junior Research Fellowship) NET: Minimum 19 years; maximum 28 years

Educational Qualification

• Candidates who have secured at least 55% marks (without rounding off) in Master's Degree OR equivalent examination from universities/institutions recognised by UGC in Humanities (including languages) and Social Sciences, Computer Science & Applications, Electronic Science etc. are eligible for this Test. The Scheduled Caste (SC)/Scheduled Tribe (ST)/Physically Handicapped (PH)/Visually Handicapped (VH) category candidates who have secured at least 50% marks (without rounding off) in Master's degree or equivalent examinations are eligible for this Test.
• Candidates who have appeared OR will be appearing at the qualifying Master's degree (final year) examination and whose result is still awaited OR candidates whose qualifying examinations have been delayed may also apply for this Test. However, such candidates will be admitted provisionally and shall be considered eligible for award of JRF/ Lectureship eligibility only after they have passed their Master's degree examination or equivalent with at least 55% marks (50% marks in case of SC/ST/PH/VH category candidates). Such candidates must complete their P.G. degree examination within two years from the date of NET result with required percentage of marks, failing which they shall be treated as disqualified.
• The PhD degree holders whose Master's level examination had been completed by 19 September 1991 (irrespective of date of declaration of result) shall be eligible for a relaxation of 5% in aggregate marks (ie, from 55% to 50%) for appearing in NET.
• Candidates are advised to appear in the subject of their post-graduation only. The candidates, whose post-graduation subject is not covered in the list of subjects, may appear in a related subject.
• Candidates seeking concession in fee are required to submit attested copy of their OBC (Non-creamy layer)/ SC/ ST/ PH/ VH certificate along with online printout of their Application Forms (obtained while applying on-line). Other candidates are not required to submit any certificates/ documents in support of their eligibility along with printout of their Application Form. Therefore, the candidates, in their own interest, must satisfy themselves about their eligibility for the Test. In the event of any ineligibility being detected by the Commission at any stage, their candidature will be cancelled and they shall be liable for legal action.
• Candidates with post-graduate diploma/certificate course(s), should in their own interest, ascertain the equivalence of their course(s) with Master's degree of recognized Indian universities from Association of Indian Universities (AIU), New Delhi. (http://www.aiuweb.org/)

Important Dates

• Opening date for online registration - 26 September 2011
• Closing date for online registration - 25 October 2011
• Last date for sending documents at test center- 31 October 2011
• Written Test Date- 24 December 2011 (Saturday)

Application Fee: The application fees to be paid by SC/ ST/ PH/ VH candidate is Rs 110, for OBC candidate is Rs 225 and for General candidate is Rs 450.
Selection procedure

• The Test will consist of three papers. All the three papers will be held on 24 December 2011 in two separate sessions as under:

Session	Paper	Marks	Duration
First	I	100	1¼ Hours (09.30 A.M. to 10.45 A.M.)
First	II	100	1¼ Hours (10.45 A.M. to 12.00 NOON)
Second	III	200	2½ Hours (01.30 P.M. to 04.00 P.M.)

          
Paper-III will be evaluated only for those candidates who are able to secure the minimum qualifying marks in Paper-I and Paper-II, as per the table given in the following:

Category	Minimum Qualifying Marks
	Paper - I	Paper - II	Paper - I + Paper - II
General	40	40	100 (50 %)
OBC/ PH/ VH	35	35	90 (45 %)
SC/ ST	35	35	80 (40 %)

The minimum qualifying criteria for award of JRF is as follows:

Category	Minimum Qualifying Marks
	Paper - I	Paper - II	Paper - I + Paper - II	Paper III
General	40	40	100 (50 %)	100 (50 %)
OBC/ PH/ VH	35	35	90 (45 %)	90 (45 %)
SC/ ST	35	35	80 (40 %)	80 (40 %)

However, the final qualifying criteria for Junior Research Fellowship (JRF) and Eligibility for Lectureship shall be decided by UGC before declaration of result.
How to apply
The candidate needs to follow the steps mentioned below for submission of online application form.

• Download Bank Challan Performa from the UGC website OR take photocopy from the UGC-NET Notification published in the Employment News and then deposit the requisite test fee in any branch of State Bank of India along with the bank charges (commission) of Rs 20.
• Before applying Online, the candidates must possess the following: (i) Scanned passport size photograph in JPEG format of less than 300 kb, (ii) Copy of Bank Challan (fee receipt).
• Candidate seeking admission to the Test must apply online through a link available on the UGC website: http://www.ugc.ac.in/.
• After successful submission, the candidate should take printout of online Application Form (two copies), Attendance Slip (one copy), and Admission Card (one copy) on separate A-4 size papers.
• The envelope containing the Application Form should be super scribed "UGC NATIONAL ELIGIBILITY TEST FOR JUNIOR RESEARCH FELLOWSHIP AND ELIGIBILITY FOR LECTURESHIP, DECEMBER 2011".

For more information, please visit http://ugcnetonline.in/

Navodaya Vidyalaya Trained Graduate Teacher Recruitment 2011

NVS is an autonomous organization under the Ministry of Human Resource Development, Department of School Education & Literacy, Govt. of India. So, it’s a golden opportunity for those who are eligible and were looking for teaching  jobs.


Trained Graduate Teachers (TGT)

• Subjects-English / Hindi / Mathematics / Social Science / Science
• Pay Scale-Rs. 9300-34800 + Grade Pay of Rs.4600/-
• Age Limit-Maximum 30 years as on 30/09/2011

Selection Procedure:
A Written test comprising two papers that is Paper-I & Paper-II  for both PGT and TGT will be organized to shortlist the candidates. The papers will have the following:-
Paper-I-General Paper-60 Marks-2 Hours
Paper-II-Subject-80 marks-2 Hrs & Language Paper-40 marks-1 Hrs
Last date of receiving application-23/10/2011
Application Fees-Rs. 500/- for General/OBC (no fee for SC/ST/PH/Ex-Servicemen) in the form of DD in favour of Navodaya Vidyalaya Samiti payable at Chandigarh is to be sent along with the application form.
How to Apply?
Completely filled application form superscribed in bold letters as “APPLICATION FOR THE POST OF TGT  in_________ ” as subject should be sent to “The Director, Navodaya Leadership Institute, JNV Campus, Sector-25,Chandigarh-160014″ by ordinary post only.
Application Form:-
The form can be downloaded from the official website whose link is provided below and should be filled completely before posting.
For Complete advertisement and application form you can visit http://navodaya.nic.in

Madras Fertilizers Limited Recruitment

Madras Fertilizers Limited (Manali, Chennai), a government of India Undertaking,  is looking for eligible Indian citizens for the following positions of General Manager and Probationary Engineers in different streams:

General Manager
1. General Manager – Plant , E8
No. of Post – 1 (Unreserved)
Educational Qualification & Experience – B.E / B.Tech in Chemical Mechanical with 30 years of experience or 23 years of Post qualification experience
2. General Manager – Personnel & Administration, E8
No. of Post – 1 ( SC)
Educational Qualification & Experience – Same as above
3. General Manager – Marketing & Distribution , E8
No. of Post – 1 ( Unreserved)
Educational Qualification & Experience – Same as above
Age of GM – Preferable age 48 and not more than 53 years ( as on 14^th October,2011)
Salary – Rs. 51300 – 73000

Probationary Engineers:
Probationary Engineer – Chemical
No. of Post – 9
Educational Qualification – Engineering Degree in Chemical Tech / Chemical Eng / Petrochemical Technology
Probationary Engineer – Mechanical
No. of Post – 6
Educational Qualification – Engineering Degree in Mechanical
Probationary Engineer – Electrical
No. of Post – 2
Educational Qualification – Engineering Degree in Electrical / Electrical & Electronics
Probationary Engineer – Instrumentation
No. of Post – 2
Educational Qualification – Engineering Degree in Instrumentation / Electronics & Communication
Probationary Engineer – Civil
No. of Post – 1
Educational Qualification – Engineering Degree in Civil
Age of PE – Not above 28 years ( as on 14^th October, 2011)
Salary – Rs. 12600 to 32500
After completing the Probation period Salary would be in E1 scale of Pay of Rs. 16400 – 40500/- with all other allowances.

Those who are interested in above mentioned positions of GM and PE, visit the official website of Madras Fertilizer Ltd to read the complete details and to apply Online – www.madrasfert.nic.in/recruitment.htm
The last date to send the application is 14^th October,2011.

Frontline Magazine September 24 - October 07, 2011

                                    FOR DOWNLOAD CLICK HERE

Allahabad Bank Probationary Officers Exam., 2011

General Awareness
(Exam Held on 17-4-2011)


1. Which of the following is/are the objective(s) of Free Trade Agreement, India has done with many countries ?
1. To provide support to entrepreneurs for setting up new projects in tiny/SSI sector.
2. For undertaking expansion of business.
3. To support technology up-gradation.
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 2 and 3
(C) All 1, 2 and 3
(D) Only 1 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

2. Which of the following organisations issue the rules of global trade ?
(A) World Bank
(B) World Trade Organisation
(C) Foreign Exchange Dealers’ Association
(D) Directorate General and Foreign Trade
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

3. One single statement that depicts the financial position of a bank and/or business enterprise at a given point of time is called—
(A) Statement of product details
(B) Reconciliation Statement
(C) Balance Sheet
(D) Quarterly returns submitted to RBI
(E) Trading and manufacturing account
Ans : (C)


4. Banks borrow money from the RBI on which of the following rates ?
(A) Reverse Repo Rate
(B) Repo Rate
(C) SLR
(D) CRR
(E) Savings Rate
Ans : (B)

5. The Reverse mortgage scheme is launched to give benefit to which of the following groups of society ?
(A) Govt. employees
(B) Senior Citizens
(C) Unemployed youth
(D) War widows
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

6. What does the letter ‘M’ depict in the term SME as used in the financial world ?
(A) Maximum
(B) Medium
(C) Mercantile
(D) Mutual
(E) Ministry
Ans : (B)

7. One of the major challenges banking industry is facing these days is deliberate efforts of some people to bring money earned through illegal activities in circulation. Which of the following acts is passed to prevent this activity ?
(A) Payment & Settlements Act
(B) Banking Regulation Act
(C) Negotiable Instrument Act
(D) Narcotics and Psychotropic Substance Act
(E) Prevention of Money laundering Act
Ans : (E)

8. Which of the following organizations provides guarantee to the exporters ?
(A) Exim Bank
(B) Export Credit Guarantee Corporation
(C) Director General Foreign Trade
(D) Reserve Bank of India
(E) Registrar of companies
Ans : (B)

9. Which of the following terms is not used in Banking World ?
(A) Credit
(B) Rate
(C) Financial Status
(D) Discount
(E) Absolute zero
Ans : (E)

10. What is the full form of IRR as used in banking/financial sectors ?
(A) Internal Rate of Return
(B) Internal Revaluation Reserve
(C) Investment Reserve Ratio
(D) Internal Risk Return
(E) None of the above
Ans : (A)

11. Which of the following organisations provides credit history of the borrowers ?
(A) CIBIL
(B) ARCIL
(C) SEBI
(D) RBI
(E) CCIL
Ans : (A)

12. Banks need liquidity to meet which of the following objectives of banking ?
1.Meet deposit withdrawal
2.Fund loan demands
3.Maintain public confidence
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 1 and 2
(E) Only 2 and 3
Ans : (D)

13. According to latest Economic Survey, which of the following sectors will provide largest share to Indian economy in the days to come?
(A) Agriculture
(B) Industry
(C) Services
(D) Exports
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

14. Which one of the following group represents key industries ?
1. Crude oil, electricity
2. Petroleum refining and finished steel
3. Cement and coal
(A) Only group 1
(B) Only group 2
(C) Only groups 1 and 2
(D) Only group 3
(E) All groups 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (E)

15. Which one of the following is covered in the list of services for service tax purposes ?
1. Insurance/health services
2. Hotel accommodation/air travel services
3. Money changers/legal services
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (E)

16. Which of the following agencies is providing Unique Identity Cards to all Indian Residents ?
(A) Election Commission of India
(B) Ministry Foreign Affairs
(C) Govt. of Maharashtra
(D) Border Secutiry Force
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

17. Vikram Pandit is associated with which of the following banks ?
(A) Yes Bank
(B) ICICI Bank
(C) Citigroup
(D) HSBC
(E) State Bank of India
Ans : (C)

18. Banks make frequent changes in their product profile including introduction of new products etc. This is called—
(A) Product Control
(B) Product enhancement
(C) Product marketing
(D) Product enrichment
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

19. Banking and financial services, all over the world, are regulated usually by Monetary Authority of the land. Who controls this function in India?
(A) Ministry of Finance
(B) SEBI
(C) RBI
(D) IRDA
(E) FEDAI
Ans : (C)

20. As per guidelines of the RBI, banks are to provide appropriate banking facilities to habitations having population in excess of 2000 by which year ?
(A) 2011
(B) 2012
(C) 2015
(D) 2016
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

21. Which one of the following is the target fixed for maintaining fiscal deficit in the Union Budget of India ?
(A) 4•6 per cent of total budget
(B) 4•6 per cent of GDP
(C) 3•6 per cent of total budget
(D) 3•6 per cent of GDP
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

22. FIMMDA stands for—
(A) Foreign Investment Markets & Derivatives Market Association
(B) Fixed Income Money Markets and Derivatives Association
(C) Fixed Income and Money Market Development Association
(D) Floating Income and Money Markets Derivative Assets
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

23. On which one of the following issues, a group of top business leaders and other eminent citizens have expressed their concern to the Govt. of India ?
(A) Corporate Governance
(B) Fiscal deficit
(C) Inflation
(D) Governance deficit
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

24. Nobel Laureate Muhammed Yunus belongs to which one of the following countries ?
(A) Sri Lanka
(B) Pakistan
(C) Maldives
(D) Bangladesh
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

25. Who is the author of the book ‘Darkness At Noon’ ?
(A) V. S. Naipaul
(B) Chetan Bhagat
(C) Arthur Koestler
(D) Vikram Seth
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

26. For which one of the following purposes, Mega Food Parks scheme was introduced by the Government of India ?
(A) To provide better price to farmers
(B) To improve the productivity of food crops
(C) To control the prices of food items
(D) To avoid wastage of fruits and vegetables stored for export
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

27. Which of the following terms is not used in banking ?
(A) Debit Card
(B) Credit Card
(C) Kisan Card
(D) ELISA Test
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

28. Which of the following is the reason, owing to which Government charges export duty on some export items ?
(A) It is to get benefit of high international prices
(B) To improve the tax collection targets
(C) It is as per international practices
(D) To ensure the smooth availability of the items in India
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

29. Pipavav Port is located in which of the following States ?
(A) Odisha
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Gujarat
(E) West Bengal
Ans : (D)

30. Which of the following is/are the objective(s) of our monetary policy ?
1. Anchor inflation expectations
2. Actively manage liquidity
3. Maintain interest rate regime consistent with price output and financial stability
(A) Only 1
(B) All 1, 2 and 3
(C) Both 1 and 3
(D) Only 2
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

31. With which one of the following fields was Pandit Bhimsen Joshi associated ?
(A) Dance
(B) Music
(C) Short-story writing
(D) Novels
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

32. For which of the following purposes, RBI has constituted a Working Group with Shri Deepak Mohanty as Chairman ?
(A) Deregulation of primary markets
(B) Deregulation of secondary markets
(C) Deregulation of Savings Bank Rates
(D) Introduction of Base Rate
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

33. Who is Kapil Sibal ?
(A) Coal Minister of India
(B) Civil Aviation Minister of India
(C) Telecom Minister of India
(D) Economic Advisor to Prime Minister of India
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

34. Which of the following will set up core banking infrastructure for rural banks ?
(A) SIDBI
(B) IBA
(C) RBI
(D) SBI
(E) NABARD
Ans : (E)

35. Colonel Muammar al Gaddafi is associated with which one of the following countries ?
(A) Libya
(B) Beharin
(C) Yemen
(D) Tunisia
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

36. What is Gross Domestic Product ?
(A) It is the cost of production of all final goods and services made in the country
(B) It is the cost of services made within the borders of a country in a year
(C) It is the market value of all final goods and services made in the country
(D) It is the market value of all final goods and services made within the borders of a country in a year
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

37. Which of the following metals is used for generation of Nuclear Power ?
(A) Silver
(B) Gold
(C) Uranium
(D) Copper
(E) Barium
Ans : (C)

38. In which one of the following States, India’s first Islamic Bank is proposed to be set up ?
(A) Kerala
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Odisha
(D) Bihar
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

39. In which one of the following States, Niyamgiri Bauxite Mining Project is proposed to be set ?
(A) Odisha
(B) Jharkhand
(C) West Bengal
(D) Bihar
(E) Chhattisgarh
Ans : (A)

40. Which of the following terms is not used in Economics ?
(A) Demand and Supply
(B) Ad Valoram Tax
(C) Break even
(D) HIV positive
(E) Cost benefit analysis
Ans : (D)

41. For which one of the following reasons Finance Minister denied entry of NRI funds for infra bonds ?
(A) It will bring in more liquidity in the country
(B) NRIs can withdraw their funds any time
(C) It will bring interest burden on the country
(D) It could lead to losses at the time of redemption because of fluctuations in the Indian Currency
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

42. What is ‘financial inclusion’ ?
1. Easy access to bank accounts for safe parking of savings
2. Availability of cheap credits through appropriately designed loans for poor and low income households and small entrepreneurs
3. Availability of basic financial products like insurance
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 2
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (B)

43. According to the Securities and Insurance Laws (Amendment) Bill 2010, who amongst the following will be Vice-Chairman of joint commission to resolve differences amongst the financial regulators ?
(A) Finance Minsiter, GOI
(B) Deputy Chairman, Planning Commission
(C) SEBI Chairman
(D) Chairman, Central Vigilance Commission
(E) RBI, Governor
Ans : (E)

44. Which of the following terms is used in Economics ?
(A) Keynesian
(B) Adsorption
(C) Affinity Matrix
(D) Gene Flow
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

45. Which one of the following is the directive given to the Govt. of India in the Financial Stability Report submitted to it ?
(A) Focus on financial consistency
(B) To reduce fiscal deficit
(C) To ensure GDP growth
(D) To reduce revenue deficit
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

46. In which one of the following States, Jangi-Thopon and Thopon-Powari Power Projects are proposed to be set up ?
(A) J & K
(B) H. P.
(C) U. P.
(D) Manipur
(E) Meghalaya
Ans : (B)

47. Which one of the following is the proposal under the Food Security Law ?
(A) To provide 25 kg of food-grains to ration card holders
(B) To provide 25 kg of food-grains to targeted beneficiaries
(C) To provide 35 kg of food-grains to ration card holders
(D) To provide 35 kg of food-grains to targeted beneficiaries
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

48. Which one of the following are key policy rates used by RBI to influence interest rates ?
1. Bank Rate/the Repo Rate
2. Reverse Repo Rate
3. CRR/SLR
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) All 1, 2 and 3
(D) Only 3
(E) Both 1 and 3
Ans : (C)

49. For giving cooking gas connection to poor families, which of the following one time subvention (in rupees) will be provided by the Planning Commission ?
(A) 500
(B) 600
(C) 750
(D) 1000
(E) 1400
Ans : (E)

50. Which one of the following rates signal the RBI’s long term out-look on interest rates ?
(A) Repo Rate
(B) Reverse Repo Rate
(C) Bank Rate
(D) SLR
(E) CRR
Ans : (C)

51. What do you understand by ‘Para Banking’ services ?
(A) Eligible financial services rendered by banks
(B) Utility services provided by banks
(C) Services provided through business correspondents
(D) Services provided to armed force personnel
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

52. For which one of the following reasons, the Steel Ministry wants complete ban on export of iron ore from India ?
(A) The price of iron ore exports is not competitive
(B) The iron ore exports do not provide any value addition to exports
(C) The prices of iron ore are high and as such the exports of the ore should be banned
(D) Iron ore is a non-renewable resource like coal and petroleum products, hence it should be preserved
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

53. What is a cross Border Exchange ?
(A) Trading of foreign currency in India
(B) Trading of Indian rupee in exchange of other currencies/ goods
(C) Hawala transactions in Indian Rupee
(D) Unauthorized remittance of Indian Rupee
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

54. What is Cartosat-2B ?
(A) It is an advanced remote sensing statellite built by ISRO
(B) It is a warhead developed by DRDO
(C) It is an educational project launched by UGC
(D) It is an advanced computer developed by IIT Kanpur
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

55. For which one of the following reasons RBI has decided to undertake mid-quarter policy reviews ?
1. To realign its policies
2. To take steps and ensure smooth flow of credit
3. To provide guidance to the economy
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

56. Which one of the following is the objective of Financial Stability and Development Council ?
(A) To address inter-regulatory issues only
(B) To focus on financial literacy only
(C) To focus on financial inclusion only
(D) Only (A) and (B)
(E) All (A) , (B) and (C)
Ans : (C)

57. For which one of the following reasons has the Planning Com-mission decided to convert itself into a system Reforms Commission ?
(A) It is to make people to people contact
(B) It is to understand the problems of people
(C) It is to review the implementation of its policies
(D) It is aimed at changing economic profile of the country
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

58. Which one of the following sectors in India has attracted highest amount of Foreign Direct Investment during 2009-10 ?
(A) Manufacturing
(B) Construction
(C) Wholesale and Retail Trade
(D) Financial Insurance, Real Estate
(E) Civil Aviation
Ans : (B)

59. Which of the following is/are a renewable source of energy ?
1. Wind
2.Solar
3. Thermal
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) All 1, 2 and 3
(D) Only 2 and 3
(E) Only 1 and 2
Ans : (E)

60. Expand the term SWIFT—
(A) Society for Worldwide Inter-national Financial Telecommunications
(B) Society for Worldwide Inter-bank Financial Telecommunications
(C) Society for Worldwide Inter-national Financial Transfers
(D) Society for Worldwide Inter-bank Fiscal Transactions
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

61. For which one of the following reasons. NABARD has set up joint liability groups (JLG) of farmers ?
(A) To facilitate delivery of credit to farmers
(B) To facilitate better delivery of credit to farmers through informal sources
(C) To facilitate better delivery of credit to share croppers and those who do not have their own land
(D) To facilitate better delivery of credit to farmers through Panchayats
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

62. Which of the following terms is not used in Banking World ?
(A) Holding Company
(B) Post dated cheque
(C) Credit
(D) Time deposit
(E) Centripetal force
Ans : (E)

63. What is the extent of claim that can be entertained by a Lok Adalat ?
(A) Up to lakhs
(B) Up to 10 lakhs
(C) Up to 20 lakhs
(D) Up to 50 lakhs
(E) No limit
Ans : (A)

64. ‘ASHA’ is a scheme for providing which of the following services to the people in India ?
(A) Health Service
(B) Clean water
(C) Primary Education
(D) Employment for 100 days
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

65. Some private organizations are running e-choupals, to help which of the following section of society ?
(A) Farmers
(B) Small businessman
(C) Cooperative Credit Societies
(D) School-going children
(E) Unemployed youth
Ans : (A)

66. Which is the currency of U.A.E. ?
(A) Dirham
(B) Dinar
(C) Dollar
(D) Taka
(E) Pound Sterling
Ans : (A)

67. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘A bend in the River’ ?
(A) Chetan Bhagat
(B) V. S. Naipaul
(C) Kiran Desai
(D) Anita Desai
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

68. Which of the following terms is used in game of Cricket ?
(A) Love
(B) Scoop
(C) LBW
(D) Tee
(E) Back-hand drive
Ans : (C)

69. Which one of the following was India’s per cent GDP growth during 2009-10 ?
(A) 6•7
(B) 9•2
(C) 7•4
(D) 9•7
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

70. Which one of the following countries in Europe is facing financial crisis ?
(A) Ireland
(B) Portugal
(C) Rumania
(D) Hungary
(E) France
Ans : (D)

71. Which of the following schemes is launched for school children ?
(A) Rajlakshmi
(B) Kutir Jyoti
(C) Mid Day Meal
(D) Swajal Dhara
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

72. Loans of small or very small amounts given to low income group people are known as—
(A) Investment Loans
(B) Micro Credit
(C) Savings Loan
(D) Secured Loans
(E) Cash Credit Loans
Ans : (B)

73. Which of the following is the Central Bank of U.S.A. ?
(A) Federation of Banks in U.S.A.
(B) Citigroup U.S.A.
(C) Bank of America
(D) Central Bank of U.S.A.
(E) Federal Reserve System
Ans : (E)

74. Which one of the following countries was second biggest net importer of goods and services in the year 2009 ?
(A) U.S.A.
(B) India
(C) China
(D) Germany
(E) Russia
Ans : (B)

75. The activity of purchasing shares of various companies is called—
(A) On-line Trading
(B) Share Trading
(C) Real estate investment
(D) Corporate Trading
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

Corporation Bank Probationary Officers Exam., 2011

General Awareness on Socio-Economic Developments
(Exam Held on 29-5-2011)

1. Micro credit or micro finance is a novel approach to banking with the poor. In this approach bank credit is extended to the poor through—
(A) Self Help Groups
(B) Anganwadees
(C) Cooperative Credit Societies
(D) RBI
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

2. TRAI regulates the functioning of which of the following ser-vices ?
(A) Port
(B) Trade
(C) Telecom
(D) Transport
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

3. Many times we read about ‘Hawala’ transactions in newspapers. Hawala in India is prohibited under the provision of which of the following Acts ?
(A) Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act
(B) Banking Regulation Act
(C) Financial action Task Force Act
(D) Foreign Exchange Management Act
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)


4. Which of the following is the popular name of the norms by which bank satisfy itself about the customers identity and motivation ?
(A) Basel norms
(B) KYC norms
(C) Service norms
(D) Lending norms
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

5. Mutual funds are regulated by—
(A) Association of Mutual Funds of India (AMFI)
(B) Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
(C) Reserve Bank of India
(D) IRDA
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

6. Bancassurance is—
(A) an insurance scheme to insure bank deposits
(B) an insurance scheme exclusively for the employees of banks
(C) a composite financial service offering both bank and insurance products
(D) a bank deposit scheme exclusively for employees of insurance companies
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

7. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan is aimed at the education of which of the following ?
(A) Education of children between 6–14 years
(B) Education of girls up to graduation level
(C) College education
(D) Adult education
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

8. Jnanpith Award is given for excellence in the field of—
(A) Social service
(B) Sports
(C) Classical dance
(D) Music
(E) Literature
Ans : (E)

9. Which of the following bills presented in the Parliament will bring some changes in existing tax regime ?
(A) Direct Taxes Code (DTC) Bill
(B) Foreign Exchange Management Regulatory Bill
(C) Companies Act Bill
(D) Salaries and Perks for MPs Bill
(E) Finance Bill 2010-11
Ans : (A)

10. The full form of PIN in a ATM card is—
(A) Permanent Information Number
(B) Personal Identification Number
(C) Professional Identification Number
(D) Permanent Identification Number
(E) Personal Index Number
Ans : (B)

11. Which of the following is not the function of RBI ?
(A) Maintaining Forex
(B) Decides Bank rate, CRR and SLR from time to time
(C) Opening Savings Accounts for general public
(D) Prescribes the Capital Adequacy Ratio
(E) Currency Management
Ans : (C)

12. Obligation of a Banker to maintain secrecy is applicable to—
(A) only in case of existing deposit accounts
(B) only in respect existing loan accounts
(C) only in case of closed accounts
(D) all types of deposit/loan accounts (existing/closed)
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

13. Banks today in addition to normal banking services offer which of the following services ?
(A) Internet banking
(B) Depository services
(C) Financial counseling services
(D) Only (A) and (B) above
(E) All (A), (B) and (C) above
Ans : (E)

14. Dr. Muhammad Yunus is a resident of—
(A) India
(B) Pakistan
(C) Bangladesh
(D) U.S.A.
(E) U.K.
Ans : (C)

15. Which among the following cannot be called an anti inflationary measure ?
(A) Raising the bank rates
(B) Raising the reserve ratio requirements
(C) Purchase of securities in the open markets
(D) Rationing of the credit
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

16. Which among the following is the major marine food export item of India ?
(A) Frozen fish
(B) Frozen shrimp
(C) Frozen crabs
(D) Cephalopods
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

17. In context with the business and banking, what is CRAR ?
(A) Capital to risk asset ratio
(B) Credit to risk asset ratio
(C) Credit to risk assessment ratio
(D) Capital to risk assessment rate
(E) Credit rate assessment ratio
Ans : (A)

18. The monetary authority in India viz. reserve bank of India is bound to maintain a reserve against the note issue whatever may be the amount. This system is called as—
(A) Minimum reserve system
(B) Proportional reserve system
(C) Maximum fiduciary issue system
(D) Simple deposit system
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

19. Consider the following—
1. Bank rate policy
2. Open market operations
3. Devaluation of rupee.
Which among the above are called fiscal measures ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 both
(C) 1 and 3 both
(D) 3 only
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

20. Which among the following is the most abundant human resource in India ?
(A) High skilled labour in organized sector
(B) High skilled labour in unorganized sector
(C) Low skilled labour in organized sector
(D) Low skilled labour in unorganized sector
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

21. What is the maximum amount per withdrawal in a day that can be withdrawn by a customer by using ATM of other bank ?
(A) Rs. 1,000
(B) Rs. 3,000
(C) Rs. 5,000
(D) Rs. 10,000
(E) No such limit
Ans : (E)

22. Interest rates on which of the following deposit schemes is fixed by Reserve Bank of India ?
(A) Fixed deposit above 5 years maturity
(B) Recurring deposits
(C) Saving bank
(D) Flexi deposit scheme
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

23. Which of the following policies is known as annual policy statement ?
(A) Annual budget of Central Govt.
(B) Credit and monetary policy of RBI
(C) Foreign trade policy of DGFT
(D) Regulation issued by SEBI
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

24. Appropriate banking facilities are to be provided to habitations having population above 2000 people by—
(A) 2011
(B) 2012
(C) 2013
(D) 2014
(E) 2015
Ans : (B)

25. Govt. shareholding in public sector banks cannot be below—
(A) 33%
(B) 51%
(C) 74%
(D) 76%
(E) 100%
Ans : (B)

26. The Union Budget for 2011-12 proposed lowering of qualifying age for tax relief for senior citizens for 65 years to—
(A) 55 years
(B) 58 years
(C) 63 years
(D) 62 years
(E) 60 years
Ans : (E)

27. Government of India in March 2011 conferred the miniratna status on which of the following PSUs ?
(A) National Small Industries Corporation (NSIC)
(B) Air India Charters Ltd.
(C) Cement Corporation of India
(D) HMT Machine Tools Ltd.
(E) Bharat Heavy Electricals Ltd.
Ans : (A)

28. Noted social worker Anna Hazare started his hunger strike at Jantar Mantar in New Delhi to protest against the reported delay in bringing in which of the following bills to effectively deal with corruption ?
(A) Central Vigilance Commission Bill
(B) The Competition (Amendment) Bill
(C) The Airports Economic Regulatory Authority of India Bill
(D) The Appropriation (No. 3) Bill
(E) Lokpal Bill
Ans : (E)

29. As we all know Govt. of India collects tax revenue on various activities in the country. Which of the following is a part of the tax revenue of the Govt. ?
1. Tax on income
2. Tax on expenditure
3. Tax on property or capital asset
4. Tax on goods and services.
(A) Both 1 and 3 only
(B) Both 2 and 4 only
(C) All 1, 2, 3 and 4
(D) Only 2, 3 and 4
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

30. Sardar Sarovar dam is on which of the following rivers ?
(A) Ganga
(B) Jamuna
(C) Beas
(D) Narmada
(E) Ravi
Ans : (D)

31. As per the targets for 11th Five Year Plan, educated unemployment is to be reduced to which of the following levels ?
(A) 9%
(B) 6%
(C) 7%
(D) 8%
(E) 5%
Ans : (E)

32. Which of the following Acts was framed specially to deal more effectively with the problem of Non-performing assets in banking system ?
(A) Companies Act
(B) Banking Regulation Act
(C) Foreign Exchange Management Act
(D) Industrial Dispute Act
(E) SARFAESI Act
Ans : (E)

33. Very often we read in news-papers / magazines about ‘Sovereign Wealth Funds’. Which of the following is/are the correct description of the same ?
1. These are the funds or the reserves of a government of central bank of a country which are invested further to earn profitable returns
2. These are the funds, which were accumulated by some people over the years but were not put in active circulation as they retain them as Black Money for several years
3. The funds which are created to be used as relief funds or bailouts packages.
(A) Both 2 and 3 only
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 1
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

34. Credit rating—
(A) is used to rate the borrowers while giving advances
(B) is used to work out performance of the employees
(C) is used to calculate the number of excellent audit rated branches
(D) is not used in any bank
(E) is necessary before giving promotion to employees
Ans : (A)

35. Names of which of the following rates/ratios cannot be seen in financial newspapers ?
(A) Bank rate
(B) Repo rate
(C) Statutory liquidity ratio
(D) Cash reserve ratio
(E) Pulse rate
Ans : (E)

36. Invisible exports means export of—
(A) Perishable goods
(B) Prohibited goods
(C) Unrecorded goods
(D) Goods through smuggling
(E) Services
Ans : (E)

37. Ten rupee notes contain the signature of—
(A) Finance Secretary, GOI
(B) Chairman, State Bank of India
(C) Governor, Reserve Bank of India
(D) Finance Minister, GOI
(E) Prime Minister
Ans : (C)

38. In banking terminology NPA means—
(A) No promise account
(B) Non personal account
(C) Non performing asset
(D) Net performing asset
(E) New promising amblence
Ans : (C)

39. Who is the present RBI Governor ?
(A) Dr. Y. V. Reddy
(B) Dr. Ravi Mohan
(C) Dr. Smt. Usha Thorat
(D) Shri M. V. Nair
(E) Dr. D. Subbarao
Ans : (E)

40. The wheat based Nutrition programme is being implemented by which of the following Ministries/departments of the Govt. of India ?
(A) Ministry of Labour Welfare
(B) Department of Women and Child Development
(C) Department of Consumer Affairs
(D) Ministry of Agriculture
(E) Ministry of Planning
Ans : (B)

41. Which of the following is true about ‘Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyutikaran Yojana of the Govt. of India ?
1. Its objective is electrification of all unelectrified villages
2. It was launched to provide free electricity to the farmers during the harvesting season
3. Each family covered under the scheme is eligible to get one free connection for a period of five years.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 1 and 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (A)

42. ‘Mahila Samakhya Scheme’ is launched by the ministry of—
(A) Human Resource Development
(B) Social Welfare
(C) Rural Development
(D) Agriculture
(E) Youth Affairs & Sports
Ans : (A)

43. National Rural Health Mission was launched in the year—
(A) 1995
(B) 2000
(C) 2007
(D) 2010
(E) 2005
Ans : (E)

44. Which of the following schemes is launched for providing health services in rural areas ?
(A) Operation flood
(B) Look east
(C) SJSRY
(D) JNNURM
(E) ASHA
Ans : (E)

45. Which of the following schemes is launched for the school going children ?
(A) Lok Jumbish
(B) Mid Day Meal
(C) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan
(D) AYUSH
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

46. Eligibility age for pension under Indira Gandhi National old age pension scheme for Below Poverty Line beneficiaries is now reduced to—
(A) 65 years
(B) 60 years
(C) 58 years
(D) 62 years
(E) 55 years
Ans : (B)

47. Which of the following schemes is launched by the Govt. of India to provide/develop infrastructure in rural areas ?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
(B) Financial Action Task Force
(C) Pradhan Mantri Shahari Rozgar Yojana
(D) Bharat Nirman
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

48. Govt. of India has launched special Green Revolution project for which of the following states/ group of states ?
(A) North-east states
(B) Bihar and Jharkhand
(C) West Bengal
(D) Tamil Nadu and Kerala
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

49. ‘Sugam’ is a scheme launched for—
(A) Small tax payers
(B) Pensioners getting old age pension
(C) Big Corporate House
(D) Getting all sorts of permission/clearances for small exporters
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

50. Govt. of India has created a special India Micro finance Equity Fund of Rs. 100 crores. The fund is maintained by—
(A) IDBI Bank
(B) RBI
(C) ECGC
(D) SIDBI
(E) NABARD
Ans : (D)

UPSC RECRUITMENT

Union Public Service Commission (UPSC)  
Shahjahan Road, Dhopur House, New Delhi – 110069  
 
Advertisement No. 18/2011
 
UPSC invites Online application by 13/10/2011 for following  various posts in various Government of India Ministries and Departments in the prescribed format. The posts are :

1. Senior Scientific Officer Gr.I (Chemistry) : 01 post  in  DGQA, M/o Defence   
2. Assistant Director (Systems) : 14 posts  in  CBDT, M/o Finance 
3. Assistant Research Officer (Ore-Dressing)  : 01 post  in  Indian Bureau of Mines, M/o Mines 
4. Specialist Gr.III (General Medicine) (Non Teaching Medical Specialist Sub-cadre) : 15 posts  in  Govt. of NCT of Delhi  
5. Specialist Gr.III (Psychiatry) (Non Teaching Medical Specialist Sub-cadre) : 06 posts  in  Govt. of NCT of Delhi
6. Specialist Gr.III (General Surgery) (Non Teaching Medical Specialist Sub-cadre) : 13 posts  in  Govt. of NCT of Delhi
7. Specialist Gr.III (Orthopaedics) (Non Teaching Medical Specialist Sub-cadre) : 12 posts  in  Govt. of NCT of Delhi
8. Specialist Gr.III (Paediatrics) (Non Teaching Medical Specialist Sub-cadre) : 18 posts  in  Govt. of NCT of Delhi
9. Specialist Gr.III (Obstetrics & Gynaecology) (Non Teaching Medical Specialist Sub-cadre) : 30 posts  in  Govt. of NCT of Delhi
10. Specialist Gr.III (Ophthalmology) (Non Teaching Medical Specialist Sub-cadre) : 09 posts  in  Govt. of NCT of Delhi
11. Specialist Gr.III (ENT) (Non Teaching Medical Specialist Sub-cadre) : 07 posts  in  Govt. of NCT of Delhi
12. Specialist Gr.III (Pathology) (Non Teaching Medical Specialist Sub-cadre) : 10 posts  in  Govt. of NCT of Delhi
13. Specialist Gr.III (Anaesthesia) (Non Teaching Medical Specialist Sub-cadre) : 66 posts  in  Govt. of NCT of Delhi
14. Specialist Gr.III (Gastroenterology) (Non Teaching Medical Specialist Sub-cadre) : 01 post  in  Govt. of NCT of Delhi
15. Specialist Gr.III (Microbiology) (Non Teaching Medical Specialist Sub-cadre) : 11 posts  in  Govt. of NCT of Delhi
16. Specialist Gr.III (Radio Diagnosis) (Non Teaching Medical Specialist Sub-cadre) : 26 posts  in  Govt. of NCT of Delhi

Fee payable is Rs.50/- in the shape of Central Recruitment Fee Stamp only. (fee exempted for SC/ ST/ PH/ Women candidates)

For Details of posts, qualification, instructions and application format relating to Advt. No. 18/2011, please visit UPSC web site at http://upsc.gov.in.  Application forms are available in the Recruitment Section of the above said website. OR see Employment News dated 24/09/2011.

How to Apply : Candidates should apply in the prescribed format  to the Joint Secretary (Recruitment), Union Public Service Commission, Dholpur House, Shahjahan Road, New Delhi - 110069, so as to reach on or before prescribed closing date i.e. 13/10/2011 (20/10/2011 for the candidates from far-flung areas)

Tejas undergoes weapon trials

In a key step towards attaining final operational clearance (FOC) from the India Air Force, the Light Combat Aircraft (LCA) Tejas is undergoing weapon trials, including firing air-to-air missiles to test its capability to bring down enemy planes.

As part of its first phase trials to fire bombs and missiles, Tejas underwent tests of its aerial skills a few days ago at a Jaisalmer range in Rajasthan.

The tests will continue till the end of this month during which the indigenously developed fighter plane will fire laser-guided bombs. A series of tests will be held in different conditions, DRDO officials said in New Delhi on September 23.

This is part of the development trials of the LCA Tejas for the purpose of FOC. More such trials will take place in coming months, they said.

The aircraft was inducted into the IAF in the Initial Operational Clearance (IOC) configuration in January 2011.

Following the successful trials and necessary changes in its configuration, Tejas is expected to get the FOC by December 2012.

Before attaining the FOC, the aircraft will be subjected to intensive weapons trials at several locations, including mountainous regions of Leh.

By 2014, a total of seven squadrons (over 120 aircraft) of the advanced version of the fighter aircraft, LCA MK-II with upgraded system and capabilities would be inducted into the IAF.

As part of its plans, IAF will rely on a mix of the Su-30 MKI, 126 Medium-Multi Role Combat Aircraft (MMRCA) and the indigenous LCA as its combat assets by the end of this decade.

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For more details Click here

University of Madras: Masters of Law

The University is offering M.L. degree course in the following branches under Private Study (Non semester) for the academic year 2011-2012 through English Medium only.

Disciplines:

• Br-I - International Law and Constitutional Law
• Br-II Business Law
• Br-III Criminal Law
• Br-IV Property Law
• Br-V Intellectual Property Law
• Br-VI Human Rights and Environmental Law
• Br-VII Labour and Administrative Law

Eligibility: A pass in B.L/ L.L.B., from a recognized University under regular pattern (10+2+3+3) or ( 11+1+3+3) of study.Eligibility: Candidate must have a B.L/L.L.B Degree from a recognized University

Submission of filled in application:

Candidates desiring to register for M.L. Degree Course for private appearance shall register on or before 30th OCTOBER 2011 in the prescribed application form together with the prescribed fee of Rs.15,000/- (Note : In case of candidates who have qualified for B.L/L.L.B., Degree from other than University of Madras should pay a Recognition fee of Rs.250/- and Matricula fee of Rs.50/- as the case may be in addition to the above fees) in the form of Demand Draft, drawn in favour of the Registrar, University of Madras along with .L./L.L.B./ Provisional/ Degree Certificate in original and Photo copies of Certificates(attested by Gazetted Officer)

Last date to apply: October 30, 2011

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Indian Institute of Management Bangalore: Fellow Programme in Management

The Fellow Programme in Management (FPM) is the doctoral programme of Indian Institute of Management Bangalore (IIMB). The FPM at IIMB is globally recognized as a rigorous and interdisciplinary research programme in all areas of business management and public policy. The programme is committed to training individuals who will excel in their area of research through publication quality work of international standard.
Areas of Specializations
FPM Students specialize in one of the following Areas:
1. Corporate Strategy & Policy
2. Economics & Social Sciences
3. Finance & Control
4. Marketing
5. Organizational Behavior & Human Resource Management
6. Production & Operations Management
7. Quantitative Methods
8. Information Systems
9. Public Policy & Public Systems

Duration of the Programme
Students are expected to complete the programme within 5 years. In the past, a few students have completed the programme within 4 years. The maximum duration of the programme is 7 years.
Student Intake: 30
Eligibility :
Candidates should have

1. A Master's Degree in any discipline, (10+2+3+1 or 2 pattern) with at least 55 percent marks. (OR)
2. A professional qualification like CA, ICWA, CS, with at least 55 percent marks (OR)
3. A 4 year / 8 - semester Bachelor's degree (10+2+4 pattern) with at least 60 percent marks.

We encourage candidates to submit valid test scores from either CAT (2011), or GRE/ GMAT/ GATE/ JRF/ NET but will also accept applications without any test score. Candidates taking the Graduate Record Examinations (GRE) must have the official result reported to the Indian Institute of Management Bangalore (IIMB). The GRE code number for IIMB Fellow Programme in Management is 7385.

Selection
Based on the information provided by the applicants, shortlisted candidates will be called to Bangalore for a Research Aptitude Test (RAT) and interview for final selection. Selection will be based on the applicant's performance in CAT/ GRE/ GMAT/ GATE/ JRF/ NET as applicable, past academic performance, work experience, and aptitude for research. RAT and Interviews are expected to be held in the first week of March 2012. Selected candidates are required to attend the preparatory course which is expected to be scheduled in the first week of June 2012. Registration for the programme will be during the last week of June 2012.

Last date for submission: 31st January, 2012

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Indian Institute of Technology Madras: PhD & MS Admissions

Applications are invited for admission into following programs

Ph.D

1. In Engineering and Management for those with Masters Degree in Engineering
2. In Engineering for those admitted directly with B.E / B.Tech degrees
3. In Sciences / Humanities & Social Sciences Management

M.S. in Engineering / Management
Selection Procedure: interview and/or test by the Selection Committees of the respective departments.

Minimum Educational Qualifications for Ph.D:
For Regular (full time) Research Scholars:
Ph.D. in Engineering:

1. Candidates with a Master’s degree in Engineering/Technology with a good academic record or a Master’s degree by Research in Engineering/Technology with a good academic record.
2. Candidates with Master’s degree in Sciences with a good academic record and of exceptional merit where eligible, for the relevant Engineering discipline and with a valid GATE score or UGC/CSIR NET/NBHM or equivalent qualification in the relevant area tenable for the year of registration.
   In the case of candidates with more than 5 years relevant experience after the Master’s degree, the requirement of a test score may be waived by the Selection Committee.
3. Candidates who have qualified for the award of Bachelor’s degree in Engineering/Technology with exceptionally good academic record in an eligible discipline will be considered for direct admission to Ph.D. Programme as a regular full time scholar subject to the following conditions:
   • a B.Tech degree holder of an IIT with a minimum CGPA of 8.0 on a 10 point scale or with a valid GATE score.
   • a Bachelor’s degree holder in Engineering/Technology from any other University should be among the top 10 rank holders in the University and having a valid GATE score.
   • a Bachelor’s degree holder in Engineering/Technology from a reputed R & D organisation and having a proven research record.

Ph.D. in Sciences:

1. Master’s degree in Sciences with a good academic record and having a valid GATE score or UGC/CSIR NET/NBHM or equivalent qualification tenable for the current year in the relevant area.
2. Master’s degree in Engineering/Technology are eligible with a good academic record.
3. B.Tech degree holder of an IIT are eligible with a minimum of CGPA of 8.0 on a 10.0 point scale or with a valid GATE Score.
4. B.Tech / B.E degree of any recognized University in India with a minimum CGPA of 8.0 on a 10.0 point scale or equivalent with valid GATE score.
5. Students who get more than 8.0 CGPA in M.Sc. in Science Departments of IIT Madras can be admitted directly to their Ph.D programme in Sciences with interview at departmental level; sanction of HTRA to these candidates is subject to the clearance of MHRD.

Ph.D. in Humanities and Social Sciences:
Master’s degree in an eligible discipline with a good academic record or equivalent and having a valid GATE score or UGC/CSIR NET/NBHM or equivalent qualification tenable for the current year in the relevant area.

Ph.D in Management:
Masters degree or equivalent PG Diploma or Associateship in a relevant discipline, and a Bachelor’s degree with a good academic record OR Five year integrated masters degree / dual degree or equivalent in a relevant discipline with a good academic record
AND
Qualifying in national level examinations such as JMET /CAT /XAT /MAT /ATMA /GATE /UGC or CSIR / NET / JRF or Lectureship or equivalent or international level post graduate admission examination such as GMAT / GRE or equivalent.
OR
At least 5 years of managerial experience in lieu of the above examination. (This clause is only for Non-HTRA candidates)
Master’s degree in Engineering / Technology with a good academic record or a Master’s degree by Research in Engineering / Technology in a relevant discipline are exempted from qualifying in National level examinations.

M.S. in Engineering :

1. Candidates with a Bachelor’s degree in Engineering / Technology with valid GATE score or a Master’s degree in appropriate Sciences Management/Humanities and Social Sciences where eligible with a good academic record and a valid GATE score or CSIR/UGC NET/NBHM/JMET/CAT/AIMA or equivalent qualification tenable for the current year in the relevant areas.
2. Candidates having Associate Membership of the following professional bodies will also be eligible for admission to the M.S. programme of their parent discipline provided they have a valid GATE score and have passed both part A and part B of the Membership examinations with a good academic record.
   The Institution of Engineers (India) (Civil, Mechanical, Electrical and Electronics, Electronics and Communications), the Aeronautical society of India, the Indian Institute of Metals, the Indian Institute of Chemical Engineers, the Institute of Electronics and Telecommunication Engineering and other professional bodies approved by the Senate from time to time.
3. Candidates having qualified in MFT (Major Field Test) will also be eligible for admission to the M.S. programme if the concerned department opt for it.

M.S. in Entrepreneurship/Management

1. Bachelors degree or equivalent in any professional discipline of minimum four years duration or Masters degree or equivalent in a relevant discipline, with a good academic record,
2. A good score or pass in:
   a) national I evel post graduate admission qualifying examinations such as JMET/ CAT/ XAT/ MAT/ATMA/GATE/ UGC or CSIR NET JRF or Lectureship or equivalent, or
   b) International level post graduate admission qualifying examination such as GMAT/GRE or equivalent
   c) at least 3 years of managerial experience in lieu of the qualifying test. (This clause is only for non-HTRA candidates)
3. Candidates having qualified in MFT (Major Field Test) will also be eligible for admission to the M.S. programme if the concerned department opts for it.

Last date for Registration of application through on-line : 21.10.2011

For more details Click here

CURRENT AFFAIRS MCQs

1. The Indo-Russian joint venture supersonic cruise missile Brahmos, has a range of____________ km.
1. 100
2. 200
3. 500
4. 250
Ans. (4)

2. Third World refers to
1. Developing countries
2. Developed countries
3. Capitalist nations
4. None of these
Ans. (1)

3. Which American President was assassinated while still in office?
1. Abraham Lincoln
2. James A. Garfield
3. John F. Kennedy
4. All of them
Ans. (4)

4. Headquarters of International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) are located in
1. Geneva
2. Rome
3. Montreal
4. Vienna
Ans. (3)

5. National Institute of Nutrition is located in
1. Bhopal
2. Indore
3. Karnal
4. Hyderabad
Ans. (4)

6. Sariska Reserve Forest is located in
1. Uttaranchal
2. Maharashtra
3. Jharkhand
4. None of these
Ans. (4)

7. Who is the first non-European to win the Nobel Prize for Literature?
1. Mahatma Gandhi
2. Jawahar La! Nehru
3. Rabindranath Tagore
4. Sarojini Naidu
Ans. (3)

8. Which city has emerged as the biggest IT job provider?
1. Bangalore
2. Chennai
3. Hyderabad
4. Mumbai
Ans. (1)

9. Which car company brand has the tagline — ‘For a special journey called life’?
1. Suzuki
2. Ford
3. Fiat
4. Chevrolet
Ans. (4)

10. Sachin Tendulkar does not endorse
1. Coke
2. Adidas
3. Airtel
4. Boost
Ans. (1)

11. Car ‘Tucson’ is the model built by ?
1. Honda
2. Ford
3. Suzuki
4. None of these
Ans. (4)

12. Which is not an Indian pharma company?
1. Ranbaxy
2. Pfizer
3. Cipla
4. Nicholas Piramal
Ans. (2)

13. _____________ is a book written by Late Dr. Mulkraj Anand, the eminent English author.
1. Coolie
2. The Barbers Trade Union
3. Two Leaves and a Bud
4. All of these
Ans. (4)

14. International Women’s Day is observed on
1. 28 February
2. 03 March
3. 05 March
4. 08 March
Ans. (4)

15. Headquarters of Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) are located in Mumbai. Its regional office is not located at
1. New Delhi
2. Bangalore
3. Kolkata
4. Chennai
Ans. (2)

16. World Trade Organisation (WTO) has its headquarters in
1. Geneva
2. Rome
3. Manila
4. Algiers
Ans. (1)

17. Sunderlal Bahuguna is associated with protests against Tehri Dam project and
1. Green Revolution
2. White Revolution
3. Chipko Andolan
4. None of these
Ans. (3)

18. Cricket World Cup in 2007 was hosted by
1. West Indies
2. New Zealand
3. South Africa
4. Kenya
Ans. (1)

19. From which modern day Indian state does the dance form Mohiniattam originate?
1. Tamil Nadu
2. Kerala
3. Karnataka
4. Andhra Pradesh
Ans. (2)

20. Birju Maharaj is a famous ____________dancer
1. Bharatanatyam
2. Kathakali
3. Kathak
4. Odissi
Ans. (3)

CURRENT AFFAIRS MCQs

1. Who is the US President “speech writer”?
(1) Ben Rhodes
(2) Ben Tenn
(3) Geroge Rhodes
(4) Tim Geithner
Ans. (1)

2. CNAS stands for—
(1) Centre for New American Security
(2) Commander for New American Security
(3) Combined for New American Security
(4) Co-operation for New American Security
Ans. (1)

3. Who is the Secretary of the Treasury?
(1) Ben Rhodes
(2) Tom Vilsack
(3) Tim Geithner
(4) Tom Donilon
Ans. (3)

4. Russian-born British Andre Geim and Konstantin Novoselov of___ University were named joint winners of the 2010 Nobel Prize for Physics on October 5, 2010.
(1) Oxford
(2) Leeds
(3) Manchester
(4) Birmingham
Ans. (3)

5. Which US president’s wife Eleanor Roosevelt was the first American to address the Indian Parliament?
(1) Franklin D Roosevelt
(2) Harry Truman
(3) Dwight D. Eisenhower
(4) John Kennedy
Ans. (1)



6. US President Barrack Obama are received by Maharashtra Chief minister Ashok Chavan, Union minister of state for corporate affairs and minority affairs __and US consul-general Paul Folsbee on 6 November, 2010 at Mumbai Airport.
(1) Salim Ansari
(2) J.M. Sood
(3) Salman Khurshid
(4) Ahmed Patel
Ans. (3)

7. President Barrack Obama and his wife greeted by PM Man Mohan Singh and Gursharan Kaur at New Delhi Airport on
(1) 6 November, 2010
(2) 7 November, 2010
(3) 8 November, 2010
(4) 9 November, 2010
Ans. (2)

8. Obama and the First Lady take a minute to reflect at the __, a brass sculpture that survived the 26/11 attack.
(1) Tree of Life
(2) Tomb
(3) Army of Life
(4) None of these
Ans. (1)

9. Consider the following statements about Barrack Obama —
(a) The Obamas visit a science exhibition in one of the classes on the first floor of the Holy Name High School building in Colaba.
(b) The Obamas arrive at St. Xavier’s College, Dhobi Talao, and tour the Agriculture and Food Security Expo co-organised by the US Agency for International Development Aid and Confederation of Indian Industries.
(c) Obama interacts with the villagers of Kanpura, around 25km from Ajmer, via videoconferencing.
Which of the above statements are true?
(1) Only (a)
(2) Only (b)
(3) Only (c)
(4) All of the above
Ans. (4)

10. Mario Vargas Llosa, celebrated ___ author, on October 7, 2010, won the Nobel Prize for Literature “for his cartography of structures of power and his trenchant images of the individual’s resistance, revolt, and defeat”.
(1) Peruvian-Spanish
(2) English-French
(3) German-Russian
(4) Czech-Polish
Ans. (1)

11. Who is the author of a controversial document, Charter 08, In news in October 2010, which calls for the rapid establishment of a free, democratic, and constitutional country” and an end to one-party rule in China?
(1) Liu Xiaobo
(2) Zheng Jie
(3) Li Fang
(4) Yan Zi
Ans. (1)

12. Peter Diamond arid Dale Mortensen of the United States and British-Cypriot _won the
2010 Nobel Economics Prize on October 11, 2010.
(1) Alexander Hawkins
(2) Daniel Montfort
(3) Christopher Pissarides
(4) Richard Bell
Ans. (3)

13. Jailed political activist Lid Xiaobo was awarded the 2010 Nobel Peace Prize on October 8, 2010, “for his long and non-violent struggle for fundamental human rights in __.”
(1) North Korea
(2) Myanmar
(3) China
(4) Malaysia
Ans. (3)


14. Who, in October 2010, won the 2010 Nobel Prize in chemistry for developing a chemical method that has allowed scientists to test cancer drugs and make thinner computer screens?
(1) Richard Heck
(2) Ei-ichi Negishi
(3) Akira Suzuki
(4) All of the above
Ans. (4)

15. Who among the following grabbed the first gold medal of the 16th Asian Games 2010 in Guangzhou on November 13, 2010?
(1) Wang Mingjuan of China
(2) Yuan Xiaochao of China
(3) Zhu Qianwel of China
(4) Park Tae Hwan of Korea
Ans. (2)


16. Virdhawal Khade bagged first medal for India in swimming after a gap of years in Asian Games on November 16, 2010 in Guangzhou.
(1) 28
(2) 24
(3) 20
(4) 32
Ans. (2)


17. Union Communications and Information Broadcasting Minister Andimuthu Raja resigned on November 14, 2010 in the wake of 2G spectrum allocation scam. According to the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General how many licences out of 122, given to such firms which did not fulfill eligibility criteria?
(1) 88
(2) 92
(3) 96
(4) 85
Ans. (4)

18. When did the High Court, Allahabad order the Archaeological Survey of India to find out whether a temple existed below the Babri Masjid or not?
(1) March 8, 2002
(2) August 3, 2002
(3) March 5, 2003
(4) August 22, 200
Ans. (3)


19. In which year ,the four Suits regarding Ayodhya land dispute, pending in the Faizabad civil courts were transferred to the Allahabad High court on an application moved by the Advocate- General of Uttar Pradesh?
(1) 1987
(2) 1989
(3) 1985
(4) 1983
Ans. (2)

20. While delivering verdict on the Ayodhya title suits on September 30, 2010 all the three judges had the same opinion on the Issue
(1) Was Lord Ram born at the disputed site?
(2) Was the disputed structure mosque?
(3) Was a Hindu temple demolished to build it?
(4) When were idols placed at the disputed site?
Ans. (4)

21. Who among the ‘following filed a petition on January 2 1885 that he be allowed to build a temple over’ Chabutra Janmasthan in Ayodhya?
(1) Gopal Singh Visharad
(2) Mahant Ramchandra
(3) Mahant Raghunath
(4) Mahant Raghubar Das
Ans. (4)

22. On which of the following dates the Ayodhya title suits case was transferred to the Lucknow Bench of the Allahabad High Court after the Supreme Court declined to resolve the matter on the request of the Central Government?
(1) January 7, 1993
(2) October 24, 1994
(3) December 3. 1995
(4) August 28, 1996
Ans. (2)


23. When did the Uttar Pradesh government acquired the 2.77 acre of land around the disputed structure In Ayodhya?
(1) September 18, 1991
(2) August 15, ‘1991
(3) October 10, 1991
(4) July 26, 1991
Ans. (3)

24. From which of the following places did Lal Krishna Advani embark up on his Rath Yatra to Ayodhya on September 25, 1990?
(1) Gandhinagar
(2) Puri
(3) Dakshineshwar
(4) Somnath
Ans. (4)

25. As Ram Lalla was a minor he was represented in the Ayodhya case through his next friend –
(1) Deoki Nandan Agarwal
(2) Priya Dutt Ram
(3) Bir Singh Maurya
(4) Mahant Paramhans
Ans. (1)

New India Assurance Company Ltd. Reasoning Solved Paper

Directions: Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
1. (A) Sun
(B) Universe
(C) Moon
(D) Star
Ans. (B)
2. (A) Cheese
(B) Milk
(C) Curd
(D) Ghee
Ans. (B)
3. (A) Carrot
(B) Radish
(C) Potato
(D) Brinjal
Ans. (D)
4. In a certain code ‘CONTRIBUTOR’ is written as ‘RTNOCIROTUB’. How is ‘prohibition’ written in that code?
(A) NOITIBIHORP
(B) IHORPBITION
(C) ITIONBIHOTP
(D) IHORPBNOITI
Ans. (D)
5. If ‘CAT’ and ‘BOAT’ are written as XZG and ‘YLZG’ respectively in a code language how is ‘EGG’ to be written in the same language?
(A) VSS
(B) URR
(C) VTT
(D) UTF
Ans. (C)
6. In a code language SINGER is written as AIBCED then GINGER will be written in the same code as—
(A) CBIECD
(B) CIBCED
(C) CBICED
(D) CIBECD
Ans. (B)
7. If BAT is coded as 283, CAT is coded as 383 and ARE is coded as 801, then the code for BETTER is—
(A) 213310
(B) 213301
(C) 123301
(D) 012334
Ans. (A)
8. If water is called black, black is called tree, tree is called blue, blue is called rain, rain is called pink and pink is called fish in a certain language then what is the colour of sky called in that language?
(A) Blue
(B) Fish
(C) Rain
(D) Pink
Ans. (C)
9. A man walks 3 km northwards and then turns left and goes 2 km. He again turns left and goes 3 km. He turns right and walks straight. In which direction he is walking now?
(A) East
(B) West
(C) North
(D) South
Ans. (B)
10. One morning after sunrise Vikram and Shailesh were standing in a lawn with their back towards each other. Vikram’s shadow fell exactly towards left-hand side. Which direction Shailesh was facing?
(A) East
(B) West
(C) North
(D) South
Ans. (D)
11. Nageena is taller than Pushpa but not as tall as Manish. Rama is taller than Namita but not as tall as Pushpa. Who among them is the tallest?
(A) Manish
(B) Pushpa
(C) Namita
(D) Nageena
Ans. (A)
12. In an examination Raj got more marks than Moti but not as many as Meena. Meena got more marks than Ganesh and Rupali. Ganesh got less marks than Moti but his marks are not the lowest in the group. Who is second in the descending order of marks?
(A) Meena
(B) Rupali
(C) Raj
(D) None of these
Ans. (C)
13. Pointing to a photograph of a girl, Rajan said “She has no sister or daughter but her mother is the only daughter of my mother.” How is the girl in the photograph related with Rajan’s mother?
(A) Sister in law
(B) Grand daughter
(C) Daughter in law
(D) None of these
Ans. (B)
14. If Amit’ s father is Billoo’ s father’s only son and Billoo has neither a brother nor a daughter. What is the relationship between Amit and Billoo?
(A) Uncle—Nephew
(B) Father—Daughter
(C) Father—Son
(D) Grandfather—Grandson
Ans. (C)
15. An application was received by inward clerk in the afternoon of a weekday. Next day he forwarded it to the table of the senior clerk, who was on leave that day. The senior clerk next day evening put up the application to the desk officer. Desk officer studied the application and disposed off the matter on the same day, i.e., Friday. Which day the application was received by the inward clerk?
(A) Tuesday
(B) Earlier week’s Saturday
(C) Wednesday
(D) Monday
Ans. (C)
16. Flight to Mumbai leaves every 5 hours. At the information counter I learnt that the flight took off 25 minutes before. If the time now is 10 : 45 a.m., what is the time for the next flight?
(A) 2 : 20 a.m.
(B) 3 : 30 a.m.
(C) 3 : 55 p.m.
(D) 3 : 20 p.m.
Ans. (D)
17. Babloo ranked 16th from the top and 29th from the bottom among those who passed an examination. 6 boys did not participate in the competition and 5 failed in the examination. How many boys were there in the class?
(A) 44
(B) 40
(C) 50
(D) 55
Ans. (D)
18. Indra is 7th from the left and Jaya is 5th from the right. When  they interchange their position Jaya becomes 19th from the right. What is Indra’s  position from the left?
(A) 21st
(B) 19th
(C) 23rd
(D) 20th
Ans. (D)
19. How many 5’s are in the following sequence of numbers which are immediately preceded by 7?
8 9 5 3 2 5 3 8 5 5 6 8 7 3 3 5 7 7 5 3 6 5 3 3 5 7 3 8
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
Ans. (A)
20. How many 8’s are there in the following  sequence which are immediately preceded by 6 but not immediately followed by 5?
6 8 5 7 8 5 4 3 6 8 1 9 8 5 4 6 8 2 9 6 8 1 3 6 8 5 3 6
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
Ans. (C)
21. If EARTHQUAKE is coded as MOGPENJOSM then EQUATE will be coded as—
(A) MENOPM
(B) MENOMP
(C) NJOGPM
(D) MNJOPM
Ans. (D)
22. If COUNTRY is coded in certain way as EMWLVPA, ELECTORATE will be coded
in the same manner as—
(A) CJCEFQPYWC
(B) CJGERQTYVG
(C) CNCERQPCRG
(D) GJGAVMTYVC
Ans. (D)
23. ‘Air’ is to ‘Bird’ as ‘Water’ is to ……..
(A) Drink
(B) Fish
(C) Wash
(D) Swim
Ans. (B)
24. ‘Pencil’ is to ‘Write’ as ‘Knife’ is to ………
(A) Injure
(B) Peel
(C) Prick
(D) Attack
Ans. (B)
25. Mohan is 18th from either end of a row of boys ? How many boys are there in that row?
(A) 26
(B) 32
(C) 24
(D) 35
Ans. (D)
26. In a class of 60 where boys are twice that of girls, Ramya ranked 17th from the top. If there are 9 boys ahead of Ramya, how many girls are after her in the rank?
(A) 26
(B) 12
(C) 10
(D) 33
Ans. (B)
27. ‘Soldier’ is related to ‘Army’ in the same way as ‘Pupil’ is related to …….
(A) Education
(B) Teacher
(C) Student
(D) Class
Ans. (D)
28. ‘Kilogram’ is related to ‘Quintal’ in the same way as ‘Paisa’ is related to………
(A) Coin
(B) Money
(C) Cheque
(D) Rupee
Ans. (D)
29. ‘Stammering’ is to ‘Speech’ as Deafness is to …………
(A) Ear
(B) Hearing
(C) Noise
(D) Commotion
Ans. (B)
30. ‘Guilt’ is to ‘Past’ as ‘Hope’ is to …………
(A) Present
(B) Future
(C) Today
(D) Hopeless
Ans. (B)
Directions—(Q. 31—33): in these questions, a series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
31. AND, EAR, INK, OLD
(A) URN
(B) AGE
(C) DOG
(D) OIL
Ans. (A)
32. 6, 29, 121 1961
(A) 429
(B) 489
(C) 484
(D) 461
Ans. (B)
33. 10,14,19,25
(A) 32
(C) 31
(B) 30
(D) 33
Ans. (A)
Directions—(Q. 34 to 37): in the following questions some equations are solved on the basis of a certain system. On the same basis find out the correct answer from amongst the four alternatives for the unsolved equation in each question.
34. 4*8*5=596
7*3*8 = 849
6*5 * 2=763
3*l*4=…..?….
(A) 425
(B) 542
(C) 524
(D) 531
Ans. (A)
35. 7*3*2 = 42
6*4*3 = 72
5*5*4 = 100
4*6*5=…?…
(A) 25
(B) 114
(C) 44
(D) 120
Ans. (D)
36. 4 * 6 = 72
81 * 5 = 225
9 *..? ..= 147
(A) 7
(B) 8
(C) 29
(D) 43
Ans. (A)
37.9*7 = 32
13*7= 120
17*9=208
19 * 11=.?…
(A) 64
(B) 160
(C) 240
(D) 210
Ans. (C)
38. From the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word INDUSTRY.
(A) Turn
(B) Dust
(C) Story
(D) Try
Ans. (C)
39. From the given alternative words, select the word which can be frond using the letters of the given word EDUCATIONIST.
(A) DUKE
(B) DRESS
(C) CAUTION
(D) NAUGHTY
Ans. (C)
40. The correct spelling of a word is given. The four alternatives have some mistakes such as:
1. Letter omitted.
2. Unwanted letter added.
3. Sequence of letters changed.
4. Letter omitted and another letter added as a substitute.
Find the alternative which contains maximum number of mistakes.
CONNOISSEUR
(A) CONNISEUR
(B) CONNOSHURE
(C) CANNISSEUR
(D) CONOISSUR
Ans. (B)
41. Provided the word in the brackets which is related to the words on either side of the brackets. Conceal () skulk.
(A) Guide
(B) Hide
(C) Ride
(D) Tide
Ans. (B)
42. The following make meaningful words if two letters are interchanged.
(A) DENL
(B) DANS
(C) KORW
(D) KEES
Identify the letters to be interchanged—
(A) First and second
(B) Third and fourth
(C) Second and third
(D) First and fourth
Ans. (D)
43. Which set of three letters can be added to the following to form words?
BL, REM, TAMAR, BEH, GR, K
(A) OCK
(B) ND
(C) AST
(D) UEF
Ans. (B)
44. Select the combination of numbers so that letters arranged accordingly will form a meaningful word.
T M H R E O
543210
(A) 025314
(B) 504231
(C) 315402
(D) 4053l2
Ans. (D)
45. Two words are given. Using the letters contained in these two words, which one of the following can be formed?
(1) Phrase (2) Elate
(A) Respect
(B) Pastry
(C) Asphalt
(D) Elevate
Ans. (C)
Directions—(Q. 46-47): In the following questions, two statements are given followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to consider the two statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You are to & Side which of the given conclusions can definitely be drawn from the given statements. Indicate your answer.
46. Statement (I): Elections are being held too frequently in India.
(II): There is a need to review our present democratic system.
Conclusions (I): Our present democratic system has •not been satisfactory.
(II): Frequent elections are not good for a healthy demo curacy.
(A) Only I follow
(B) Only II follows
(C) Both I and II follow
(D) Neither I nor II follows
Ans. (C)
47. Statement (I): Most No: 64 buses go to my office.
(II): This is a No: 64 buses.
Conclusions (I): This bus goes to my office.
(II): This bus does not go Tomy office.
(A)I and II follow
(B)I do not follow and II follows
(C)II does not follow and I follow
(D)Neither follows
Ans. (C)
48. A crow sat on a palm tree and a palm nut fell. Which one of the inferences is valid relating to above incident?
(A) The palm nut fell since the crow sat on the tree
(B) Sometimes crows sit on palm trees
(C) This is an act of accident
(D) This is an act of coincide
Ans. (D)
49. if Flower is called’ TREE, Tree is called RED, Red is called GOLD?’Gold is WHITE, what are ornaments made of?
(A) TREE
(B) RED
(C) WHITE
(D) FLOWER
Ans. (C)
50. Which one of the following equations correct?
(A) 12 ÷ 2 + 4 x 3 = 6
(B) 12 x 3 +4 ÷ 2 = 42
(C) 12 ÷ 3 + 4 x 2 = 12
(D) 12 x 4 ÷ 2 + 3 = 25
Ans. (C)